- #1
beginner16
- 51
- 0
hi
If two equal forces in oposite direction act on an object in translational equilibrium it will just rotate and continue to be in translational equilibrium.No matter where on the body two forces are applied?
As simple as possible please: How did we come up with
torque= F * distance_between_two _forces
Can you tell me why formula is correct no matter where the rotation axis is located?
What if body has no rotation axis,if it is just your regular book or something like that?
Could these two forces actually represent the sum of many forces applied on multiple points on the body,or must there be only two forces?
thank you for your time
If two equal forces in oposite direction act on an object in translational equilibrium it will just rotate and continue to be in translational equilibrium.No matter where on the body two forces are applied?
As simple as possible please: How did we come up with
torque= F * distance_between_two _forces
Can you tell me why formula is correct no matter where the rotation axis is located?
What if body has no rotation axis,if it is just your regular book or something like that?
Could these two forces actually represent the sum of many forces applied on multiple points on the body,or must there be only two forces?
thank you for your time