Serious Max said:Ah, I think I got it. In proving ##V-E+F=2##, we first proved that if we removed one face from a polyhedron we could prove that ##V-E+F=1##, and then adding the removed face we'd get 2: ##V-E+F=1+1##. Then this result was shown to apply to a sphere, which is just an inflated polyhedron in this context.
So a hole in a sphere corresponds to one face, in this case we transformed our initial shape into a sphere with ##2p## holes, i.e. with ##2p## faces removed. We know for a sphere with no faces removed ##V-E+F=2##, so for a sphere with ##2p## faces removed the right-hand side should be ##2p## less, since ##F## is ##2p## less.
Should make sense for those who've read the book or correct me if I'm wrong.
Seems like you answered this yourself? Or is there something else?lavinia said:Step 1: Deform the surface into a sphere with p handles. Why does this deformation leave F−E+VF−E+VF-E+V unchanged?
Step 3:lavinia said:The deformation in step 1 does not flatten anything. It just changes the shape of the faces and edges. None of them are lost so the count is preserved.
Serious Max said:Yes, I assume that's because it's a very introductory book. But thank you for pointing it out, had to think for a bit about this one.
Seems like you answered this yourself? Or is there something else?
Step 3:
A cylinder has ##V=2n##, ##E=2n+n=3n##, ##F=n##, hence ##V-E+F=0##. Basically each loose edge of the cylinder has as many vertices as it has edges, which cancel out, and the middle portion of the cylinder has as many edges as it has faces, so they cancel out.
I guess that wouldn't hurt.lavinia said:The general statement that I know is formulated using Algebraic Topology. I am willing to go through that with you.