Uniform Continuity of Integral Functions in (0,1)

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that the function \(\int^{1}_{x}\frac{\sin t}{t}dt\) is uniformly continuous on the interval (0,1). The user initially defined \(f(x) = \frac{\sin x}{x}\) for \(x \neq 0\) and \(f(0) = 1\), establishing continuity on [0,1]. The conclusion drawn is that since the integral \(G(x) = \int^{x}_{1}f(t) dt\) is continuous on [0,1], it follows that \(\int^{1}_{x}\frac{\sin t}{t}dt\) is uniformly continuous on (0,1). The discussion confirms that defining \(f(0) = 1\) is essential for continuity.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of uniform continuity in real analysis
  • Knowledge of integral calculus, specifically improper integrals
  • Familiarity with the properties of continuous functions
  • Basic concepts of derivatives and their implications on function behavior
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of uniformly continuous functions in real analysis
  • Explore the implications of the Mean Value Theorem on integrals
  • Learn about the boundedness of derivatives and its role in continuity
  • Investigate the behavior of \(\frac{\sin t}{t}\) as \(t\) approaches 0
USEFUL FOR

Students and educators in mathematics, particularly those focusing on real analysis, calculus, and the properties of continuous functions. This discussion is beneficial for anyone looking to deepen their understanding of uniform continuity and integral functions.

daniel_i_l
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Homework Statement


Prove that the function [tex]\int^{1}_{x}\frac{sin t}{t}dt[/tex] is uniformly continues in (0,1).


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



First if all, I defined f(x) as sin(x)/x for x=/=0 and 0 for x=0. So f is continues in [0,1]. Now [tex]G(x) = \int^{x}_{1}f(t) dt[/tex] Is defined and continues in [0,1] so it's uniformly continues in (0,1). But in (0,1)
[tex]G(x) = \int^{x}_{1}\frac{sin t}{t}dt[/tex] And since that's UC in (0,1), then also [tex]-\int^{x}_{1}\frac{sin t}{t}dt = \int^{1}_{x}\frac{sin t}{t}dt[/tex] is UC in (0,1). Is that enough?
Because in the book they used the fact that G(x) has a derivative in [0,1] and that G'(x) = f(x). Then they used the fact that |f(x)|<=1 (meaning that the derivative of G is bounded) to prove that G(x) is UC.
What's wrong with my way?
Thanks.
 
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I think if you want f(x)=sin(x)/x to be continuous, you'll want to define f(0)=1. Other than that, there is nothing wrong with proving it that way. If the integral is continuous on [0,1], then it is uniformly continuous on (0,1). I don't know why you are messing around with changing the limits of integration though.
 
Yeah, it's supposed to be f(0)=1. Thanks for your confirmation.
 

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