angryfaceofdr
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What can I conclude using the following theorem?
Let the functions u_n (x) be continuous on the closed interval a \le x \le b and let them converge uniformly on this interval to the limit function u(x). Then
<br /> \int_a^b u (x) \, dx=\lim_{n \to \infty} \int_a^b u_n (x) \, dx<br />
Can I conclude that if \int_a^b u (x) \, dx \neq \lim_{n \to \infty} \int_a^b u_n (x) \, dx, then the sequence of functions u_n (x) is NOT uniformly convergent on the interval?
-Also what is the contrapositive of the above theorem? (I am confused on how to negate P=" Let the functions u_n (x) be continuous on the closed interval a \le x \le b and let them converge uniformly on this interval to the limit function u(x)." )
Let the functions u_n (x) be continuous on the closed interval a \le x \le b and let them converge uniformly on this interval to the limit function u(x). Then
<br /> \int_a^b u (x) \, dx=\lim_{n \to \infty} \int_a^b u_n (x) \, dx<br />
Can I conclude that if \int_a^b u (x) \, dx \neq \lim_{n \to \infty} \int_a^b u_n (x) \, dx, then the sequence of functions u_n (x) is NOT uniformly convergent on the interval?
-Also what is the contrapositive of the above theorem? (I am confused on how to negate P=" Let the functions u_n (x) be continuous on the closed interval a \le x \le b and let them converge uniformly on this interval to the limit function u(x)." )