Von Neumann
- 101
- 4
In polar coordinates we have \vec{r} = r \hat{r} \Rightarrow \vec{v} = \frac{d}{dt}({r \hat{r}}) = \dot{r}\hat{r} + r \frac{d \hat{r}}{dt}.
In the book Introduction to Mechanics, K & K says the right term is the component of velocity directed radially outward. (Surely a typo, as the left term is the velocity component associated with the direction \hat{r}.) Then he goes on to say it's a good guess that the other term is the component in the tangential \left( \hat{\theta} \right) direction. He proves this is so in 3 ways; namely by proving \frac{d\hat{r}}{dt} is in the \hat{\theta} direction). The first two ways I understand - It's the third one I'm stuck on.
He starts by drawing two position vectors \vec{r} and \vec{r} + \Delta \vec{r} at the respective times t and t + \Delta t, along with their respective unit vectors \hat{r}_{1} , \hat{r}_{2} , \hat{\theta}_{1} , and \hat{\theta}_{2}. From the geometry, we see that \Delta \hat{r} = \hat{\theta}_{1}sin\Delta\theta - \hat{r}_{1}(1-cos\Delta\theta), where \Delta\theta is the angle between the two position vectors).
From this we see that \frac{\Delta\hat{r}}{\Delta t} = \hat{\theta}_{1}\frac{sin\Delta\theta}{\Delta t} - \hat{r}_{1}\frac{(1-cos\Delta\theta)}{\Delta t} = \hat{\theta}_{1} \left( \frac{\Delta\theta - \frac{1}{6}(\Delta\theta)^3+\cdots}{\Delta t} \right) - \hat{r}_{1} \left( \frac{\frac{1}{2}(\Delta\theta)^2 - \frac{1}{24}(\Delta\theta)^4+\cdots}{\Delta t} \right). Almost there, just need to take the limit of this quantity as \Delta t tends to 0. So we need to evaluate \frac{d \hat{r}}{dt} = \displaystyle \lim_{\Delta t \to 0} \frac{\Delta\hat{r}}{\Delta t}.
He make the following argument which concludes the proof:
"In the limit \Delta t \to 0, \Delta\theta approaches zero, but \Delta\theta/\Delta t approaches the limit d\theta/dt. Therefore, \displaystyle \lim_{\Delta t \to 0} \frac{\Delta\theta}{\Delta t}(\Delta\theta)^n for n>0. The term in \hat{r} entirely vanishes in the limit and we are left with \frac{d \hat{r}}{dt}= \dot{\theta} \hat{\theta}."
I understand that \Delta\theta/\Delta t approaches d\theta/dt as \Delta t \to 0, but I'm lost after that. How does one come to the conclusion that \displaystyle \lim_{\Delta t \to 0} \frac{\Delta\theta}{\Delta t}(\Delta\theta)^n for n>0? Then, how does this lead us to the conclusion that \hat{r} entirely vanishes in the limit?
I've been trying my hardest to work through this text, but I tend to get snagged for quite some time on explanations like the above. Usually I can fill in the missing steps myself. I feel as though I cannot thoroughly penetrate this textbook as I have others.
Thanks in advance for any guidance.
In the book Introduction to Mechanics, K & K says the right term is the component of velocity directed radially outward. (Surely a typo, as the left term is the velocity component associated with the direction \hat{r}.) Then he goes on to say it's a good guess that the other term is the component in the tangential \left( \hat{\theta} \right) direction. He proves this is so in 3 ways; namely by proving \frac{d\hat{r}}{dt} is in the \hat{\theta} direction). The first two ways I understand - It's the third one I'm stuck on.
He starts by drawing two position vectors \vec{r} and \vec{r} + \Delta \vec{r} at the respective times t and t + \Delta t, along with their respective unit vectors \hat{r}_{1} , \hat{r}_{2} , \hat{\theta}_{1} , and \hat{\theta}_{2}. From the geometry, we see that \Delta \hat{r} = \hat{\theta}_{1}sin\Delta\theta - \hat{r}_{1}(1-cos\Delta\theta), where \Delta\theta is the angle between the two position vectors).
From this we see that \frac{\Delta\hat{r}}{\Delta t} = \hat{\theta}_{1}\frac{sin\Delta\theta}{\Delta t} - \hat{r}_{1}\frac{(1-cos\Delta\theta)}{\Delta t} = \hat{\theta}_{1} \left( \frac{\Delta\theta - \frac{1}{6}(\Delta\theta)^3+\cdots}{\Delta t} \right) - \hat{r}_{1} \left( \frac{\frac{1}{2}(\Delta\theta)^2 - \frac{1}{24}(\Delta\theta)^4+\cdots}{\Delta t} \right). Almost there, just need to take the limit of this quantity as \Delta t tends to 0. So we need to evaluate \frac{d \hat{r}}{dt} = \displaystyle \lim_{\Delta t \to 0} \frac{\Delta\hat{r}}{\Delta t}.
He make the following argument which concludes the proof:
"In the limit \Delta t \to 0, \Delta\theta approaches zero, but \Delta\theta/\Delta t approaches the limit d\theta/dt. Therefore, \displaystyle \lim_{\Delta t \to 0} \frac{\Delta\theta}{\Delta t}(\Delta\theta)^n for n>0. The term in \hat{r} entirely vanishes in the limit and we are left with \frac{d \hat{r}}{dt}= \dot{\theta} \hat{\theta}."
I understand that \Delta\theta/\Delta t approaches d\theta/dt as \Delta t \to 0, but I'm lost after that. How does one come to the conclusion that \displaystyle \lim_{\Delta t \to 0} \frac{\Delta\theta}{\Delta t}(\Delta\theta)^n for n>0? Then, how does this lead us to the conclusion that \hat{r} entirely vanishes in the limit?
I've been trying my hardest to work through this text, but I tend to get snagged for quite some time on explanations like the above. Usually I can fill in the missing steps myself. I feel as though I cannot thoroughly penetrate this textbook as I have others.
Thanks in advance for any guidance.