Wave Functions With Same Energies Are the Same (only differ by a complex phase)

Yoni V
Messages
38
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Assume a particle with a wave function ##\psi(x)## such that ##-\infty < x < \infty##, that move under some potential ##V(x)##.

Show that:
a) two wave functions with same energies can only differ by a complex phase;
b) if the potential is real, then you can choose the wave function to be real as well;
c) the wave function of the ground state (with real potential) doesn't change sign.

Homework Equations


a) Schrodinger's time independent equation.

The Attempt at a Solution


I'm stuck at (a). Need a push in the right direction for the very start.
I want to show that if two wave functions ## \psi_1, \psi_2## satisfy
$$ \psi_{1/2}''(x) + \frac{2m}{\hbar^2}\left(E-V(x)\right)\psi_{1/2}(x)=0$$
then I can find an equation that ties them in a phase relation.
But aside from writing this statement down, I don't know how to proceed. Thanks.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Yoni V said:
a) two wave functions with same energies can only differ by a complex phase;
The answer to (a) can actually be found in numerous websites, e.g. in http://www.physicspages.com/2012/08/23/degenerate-solutions-dont-exist-in-one-dimension/. Try to understand the derivation, then ask if you are stuck on something.
 
Yoni V said:

Homework Statement


Assume a particle with a wave function ##\psi(x)## such that ##-\infty < x < \infty##, that move under some potential ##V(x)##.

Show that:
a) two wave functions with same energies can only differ by a complex phase;
b) if the potential is real, then you can choose the wave function to be real as well;
c) the wave function of the ground state (with real potential) doesn't change sign.

Homework Equations


a) Schrodinger's time independent equation.

The Attempt at a Solution


I'm stuck at (a). Need a push in the right direction for the very start.
I want to show that if two wave functions ## \psi_1, \psi_2## satisfy
$$ \psi_{1/2}''(x) + \frac{2m}{\hbar^2}\left(E-V(x)\right)\psi_{1/2}(x)=0$$
then I can find an equation that ties them in a phase relation.
But aside from writing this statement down, I don't know how to proceed. Thanks.

If the Hamiltonian be ##\hat H## and the two normalised energy eigen vectors be ##|\psi_1> ## and ##|\psi_2>##, then from Schroedinger's time independendent equation ##\hat H |\psi_1> = E|\psi_1>## and ##\hat H |\psi_2> = E|\psi_2>##. From these two equation you can conclude that ##|\psi_2> = c|\psi_1>##. Where ##c## is a complex number. Now as the wave vectors are normalised, you can write ##<\psi_2|\psi_2> = <\psi_1|c^* c|\psi_1> \Rightarrow <\psi_2|\psi_2> = c^* c <\psi_1|\psi_1> \Rightarrow c^*c =1##. Naturally ##c = exp (i \theta)##.
 
Korak Biswas said:
If the Hamiltonian be ##\hat H## and the two normalised energy eigen vectors be ##|\psi_1> ## and ##|\psi_2>##, then from Schroedinger's time independendent equation ##\hat H |\psi_1> = E|\psi_1>## and ##\hat H |\psi_2> = E|\psi_2>##. From these two equation you can conclude that ##|\psi_2> = c|\psi_1>##. Where ##c## is a complex number. Now as the wave vectors are normalised, you can write ##<\psi_2|\psi_2> = <\psi_1|c^* c|\psi_1> \Rightarrow <\psi_2|\psi_2> = c^* c <\psi_1|\psi_1> \Rightarrow c^*c =1##. Naturally ##c = exp (i \theta)##.
It does not explain why in 1D system like the one considered in the problem, there can be no degeneracy. Your method can be applied, for example, to a hydrogen atom. We know that for quantum numbers ##n>1##, the eigenstates are degenerate and those eigenstates are not merely related by a complex constant.
 
Thanks for your replies!
I managed both (a) and (b) and understood its underlying principles. I'm now left with (c).
We were suggested to define ##\phi = |\psi_0|## where ##\psi_0## is the wave function of the ground state, and then express ##\phi## in terms of the Hamiltonian eigenvectors and find its energy. Then, use (b) to finish. But how can I express ##\phi## in terms of the eigenvectors of the Hamiltonian when I don't know what it is?

Ok got it... sorry, I should have given it more thought before throwing the question in the air.
 
(c) asks you to prove that the ground state never crosses the x axis.
 
Hi, I had an exam and I completely messed up a problem. Especially one part which was necessary for the rest of the problem. Basically, I have a wormhole metric: $$(ds)^2 = -(dt)^2 + (dr)^2 + (r^2 + b^2)( (d\theta)^2 + sin^2 \theta (d\phi)^2 )$$ Where ##b=1## with an orbit only in the equatorial plane. We also know from the question that the orbit must satisfy this relationship: $$\varepsilon = \frac{1}{2} (\frac{dr}{d\tau})^2 + V_{eff}(r)$$ Ultimately, I was tasked to find the initial...
The value of H equals ## 10^{3}## in natural units, According to : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Natural_units, ## t \sim 10^{-21} sec = 10^{21} Hz ##, and since ## \text{GeV} \sim 10^{24} \text{Hz } ##, ## GeV \sim 10^{24} \times 10^{-21} = 10^3 ## in natural units. So is this conversion correct? Also in the above formula, can I convert H to that natural units , since it’s a constant, while keeping k in Hz ?
Back
Top