Wavefunctions and probability-Proof

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The discussion focuses on proving that the probability of finding a particle in a one-dimensional potential well is 0.5 for both halves when in the n = 2 state. Participants suggest calculating the probability for the intervals (0, L/2) and (L/2, L) using the normalized wavefunction for the potential well. It is emphasized that plotting the wavefunction and its square will visually confirm the equal probabilities. There is a question regarding the normalization of the wavefunction, indicating a need for clarity on whether to use the standard normalized form. The conversation highlights the importance of understanding wavefunctions in quantum mechanics.
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Prove that the probability of finding a particle of mass m in a one-dimensional potential well of length L is 0.5 for both the first and second half of the well for the state with n = 2. Demonstrate that these results make sense in light of the form of the wavefunction for each case.

Someone please help me with proofs. What is general outline i should follow to do this?
 
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Do you know the wave function for your potential well?

If so, compute the probability of finding the particle in (0,L/2) and then (L/2,0). You should find that the probabilities are equal.

Then plot \psi\left(x\right) and \psi^{2}\left(x\right). It should be apparent then.
 
can I use the normalized particle in a box wavefunction, or should I normalize the constant in another manner.
 
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