What Are the Steps to Solve a Boundary Condition Problem with Three Conditions?

Mazimillion
Messages
8
Reaction score
0
Hi, this question has been bugging me for weeks and any help would be greatly appreciated.

In lectures we derived a general expression for the potential distribution across the xy half plane (y>0) in terms of a known potential distribution along the boundary defined by the x-axis where the potential,phi, is described by Laplace's equation in 2-D. In the case where the potential along the boundary is: 0 for x greater than equal to a, 0 for x less then equal to -a, phi0 for -a<x<a, deduce an expression for the potential distribution throughout the half plane.

I think what is getting me are the 3 boundary conditions - I'm not sure exactly what i should be doing with them to find values for the coefficients.

i'm sorry that it's not very clear but if you have any ideas they would be greatly appreciated

thanks
 
Physics news on Phys.org
The solution to these things is always Fourier analysis, or something like it.

There are two boundary conditions here: the potential should go to zero as y gets large, and it should become your specified function of x when y is 0. Because we want the potential to die off, we have a decaying exponential in the y direction, and the general solution is a weighted sum of terms like like Ae^(-ky)e^(ikx). Since you can't restrict the value of k at all, this sum becomes an integral: Int A(k) e^(-ky)e^(ikx) dk. When y is 0, you know that the potential is your given f(x), so f(x) = Int A(k) e^(ikx) dx. So A(k) is just the Fourier transform of your boundary condition f(x)!

So, find A(k) by taking the Fourier transform of f(x), plug it into your original integral with e^(-ky), and you are done!
 
Last edited:
Thanks for that - I've really made some progress. The only problem now is applying the boundary conditions on the x-axis. How do I apply both phi=0 for x<-a, x>a and phi=phi0 for -a<x<a?

I'm probably missing something really simple but I've been pulling my hair out for ages.

Thanks
 
The integral I've mentioned is from k = negative infinity to positive infinity. f(x) is how I'm referring to your pulse between -a and a on the x axis.

The key is that A(k) and f(x) are a Fourier transform pair. Did they not discuss this in your class? So if f(x) = Int A(k) e^(ikx) dx, then A(k) = (1/2 pi) Int f(x) e^(-ikx) dx, where this integral is over all space. Since f(x) is zero except between -a and a, you can change the limits to there.
 
Got it now

Thanks a million, you've been a great help
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top