- #1
iScience
- 466
- 5
I know this is kind of a dumb question but please forgive me it's been awhile.
Is it enough for a particle to merely "feel" an external force F to state that "F is acting on the particle"?
ie if the particle was confined in a potential well and experiences F but does not move.
or does $$\vec{F} \cdot d\vec{s}$$ have to be non-zero? ie does force have to do work on the particle to state that "F is acting on the particle"?
Is it enough for a particle to merely "feel" an external force F to state that "F is acting on the particle"?
ie if the particle was confined in a potential well and experiences F but does not move.
or does $$\vec{F} \cdot d\vec{s}$$ have to be non-zero? ie does force have to do work on the particle to state that "F is acting on the particle"?