Irrotational Flow: Understanding the Physical Implications of Curl(U)=0

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Irrotational flow, characterized by curl(U)=0, indicates that the velocity vector field is conservative and originates from a scalar potential, meaning fluid lines remain parallel without curling. This condition implies that individual fluid elements do not rotate, leading to a flow that is smooth and predictable. While some may confuse irrotational flow with laminar flow, they are distinct concepts; laminar flow can occur in scenarios that are not irrotational. The discussion highlights the significance of understanding these terms in fluid dynamics. Overall, the physical implications of irrotational flow are crucial for comprehending fluid behavior in various contexts.
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All the math based texts just simply derive or state curl(U)=0 but what does this physically mean?

Does it mean that a single fluid element does not rotate?
 
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It means that the velocity vector field is a conservative one,as it comes from a scalar potential (due to curl=0).Yes,the condition is called "irrotational flow" for good reason;basically the fluid lines do not curl,they are parallel wrt themselves at any moment of time.
http://discover.edventures.com/functions/termlib.php?action=&termid=532&alpha=r&searchString=

Daniel.
 
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I suspect a good intro to superfluidity will cover this nicely ... let me check if I've got something bookmarked.
 
I would suspect an equivalent term for it would be:"laminar flow".

But that's just terminology.The basic idea behind is relevant.

Daniel.

EDIT:It would be really dull,if i wasn't wrong from time to time,huh...? :-p
 
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There is no connection between the concepts "laminar flow" and "irrotational flow".
Couette flow is certainly laminar, but not at all irrotational.
Irrotational means what it says: the local angular velocity at a point is zero.

EDIT: Yes, I think I would yawn myself to death if you were right all the time..:wink:
(Possibly, that's what I ought to do, anyways?? :confused:)
 
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I thought so, thanks.
 
I have recently been really interested in the derivation of Hamiltons Principle. On my research I found that with the term ##m \cdot \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{dr}{dt} \cdot \delta r) = 0## (1) one may derivate ##\delta \int (T - V) dt = 0## (2). The derivation itself I understood quiet good, but what I don't understand is where the equation (1) came from, because in my research it was just given and not derived from anywhere. Does anybody know where (1) comes from or why from it the...
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