Dear Radou
Yes that is the general principal of virtual work as i understand it too but its very confusing to apply.
Ive realized, since posting the diagrams up, that i made a few mistakes in my attempted solution. Since it takes so long for attachments to be approved maybe i can just describe in words what i think and hopefully u'll be able to follow...
For the bending moment at B, I've used the convention in my worked solution. However I've modified the diagram like this: The force acting on the beam will turn the beam clockwise, so it will slope down from the top of B to D, passing through C. From D to E it will be a straight constant line. The extension from D to F will be like it was in the original diagram.
Thus sum bending moment at B=0
M(B) x d* + (-)V(B) x 1.5d* + 10kN x 3d* = 0
M(B) x d* + (-)(-20kNm) x 1.5d* + 10kN x 3d* = 0
M(B) + 30 +30 = 0
M(B) = -60kNm
NOTE: V(B) stands for the shear at B. i worked it out to be -20
d* is the angle between the virtual line and the real line
However using statics i found the moment at B to be -30 not -60. Did i draw my diagram wrong? Or is it my working out? thanks in advance!