What is the definite integral of 1/(36+x^2) with bounds [0, 6]

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves finding the definite integral of the function 1/(36+x^2) over the interval [0, 6]. The context is calculus, specifically focusing on integration techniques.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to use u-substitution but expresses confusion about the choice of u. Some participants suggest alternative approaches, including referencing integration tables and specific formulas related to the integral of the given function.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring different methods to approach the integral, with some suggesting the use of known formulas and others questioning the necessity of u-substitution. There is a mix of attempts to evaluate the integral both with and without a calculator, and some guidance has been provided regarding the use of the arctangent function.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of needing to evaluate the integral without a calculator, and some participants are discussing the implications of specific values of the arctangent function in their evaluations.

Chandasouk
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Homework Statement


What is the definite integral of 1/(36+x^2) with bounds [0, 6]?

I've only been taught U substitution to handle problems like these. I let u = 36+x^2 and du=2xdx but I am stuck and don't know what to do. Te answer is pi/24 but I don't know how to obtain it.

Is there a better u to choose? if so, what?
 
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Hint: What is \frac{d}{du}\tan^{-1}(u)?
 
U substitution isn't needed. Look at an integration table.

Hint: The function being integrated takes the shape of 1/(x2+a2)
 
Okay, I used that formula u gave me although in my book it is written as

du/a^2+u^2 = 1/a*tan^-1(u/a)+C

But I had to evaluate it with a calculator [0, 6]

1/6*tan^-1(1)-1/6*tan^-1(0) = 0.1308 which is about pi/24

How would I solve it without a calculator?
 
Chandasouk said:
Okay, I used that formula u gave me although in my book it is written as

du/a^2+u^2 = 1/a*tan^-1(u/a)+C

But I had to evaluate it with a calculator [0, 6]

1/6*tan^-1(1)-1/6*tan^-1(0) = 0.1308 which is about pi/24

How would I solve it without a calculator?

Well, 1/6*tan^-1(1)-1/6*tan^-1(0)=1/6*tan^-1(1)-0=1/6*tan^-1(1). So I guess you would need to know that tan^-1(1)=\pi/4.
 
Keep in mind that u=\tan^{-1}(x) means that \tan(u)=\frac{\sin(u)}{\cos(u)}=x...so where does \frac{\sin(u)}{\cos(u)} equal zero? Where does it equal one?
 
factor out a 36 in the denominator and in the denominator you'll get: 36(1+(x/6)^2)

let u = x/6 and when you take the derivative and substitute in the original, you should get:

(1/6)[1/(1 + u^2)] and integrate, remembering that 1/(1 + u^2) is tan^-1 u after you integrate, then you can go from there.
 
answer after you integrate is (1/6)arctan(x/6) + C..

then just evaluate it for 0 to 6

(1/6)arctan(6/6)-[(1/6)arctan(0/6)]

[(1/6)*(Pi/4)]-0= Pi/24
 

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