courtrigrad
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Let's say you want to find the intermediate value \xi of the mean value theorem of the integral calculus for:
(a)\int^b_a 1 \ dx
(b)\int^b_a x \ dx
(c)\int^b_a x^n \ dx
(d)\int^b_a \frac{dx}{x^2}
Using the Mean Value Theorem we know that a \leq \xi \leq b and \mu = f(\xi) following from:
\int^b_a f(x) \ dx = \mu(b-a) where m \leq \mu \leq M and m, M are the least and greatest values of f(x).
Hence \int^b_a x \ dx = (b-a) f(\xi) because dx = b-a. So f{(\xi) = \frac{(b-a)(b+a)}{2} \times \frac{1}{b-a} = \frac{a+b}{2} Is this right? I am not sure because I think this is for f(\xi) but I want \xi. Or are they the same thing?
Thanks for any help

(a)\int^b_a 1 \ dx
(b)\int^b_a x \ dx
(c)\int^b_a x^n \ dx
(d)\int^b_a \frac{dx}{x^2}
Using the Mean Value Theorem we know that a \leq \xi \leq b and \mu = f(\xi) following from:
\int^b_a f(x) \ dx = \mu(b-a) where m \leq \mu \leq M and m, M are the least and greatest values of f(x).
Hence \int^b_a x \ dx = (b-a) f(\xi) because dx = b-a. So f{(\xi) = \frac{(b-a)(b+a)}{2} \times \frac{1}{b-a} = \frac{a+b}{2} Is this right? I am not sure because I think this is for f(\xi) but I want \xi. Or are they the same thing?
Thanks for any help

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