What is the maximum compression of the spring

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on calculating the maximum compression of a spring when a mass is released from rest. The key point is equating gravitational force (mg) to spring force (kx) to find the compression x. Confusion arises when using energy equations, as the potential energy stored in the spring (1/2 kx²) does not directly equate to gravitational potential energy (mgh) due to the varying force along the compression path. The correct approach involves recognizing that work done on the spring is the integral of force, leading to the conclusion that maximum compression occurs at x = mg/k. Understanding the relationship between force, work, and energy is crucial for solving the problem accurately.
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Homework Statement


A mass is initially held in place at the top of a spring. When it is let go, it falls and compresses a spring. What is the maximum compression of the spring.


Homework Equations



f=-kx

The Attempt at a Solution


I know the solution is to equate mg and kx to find x. However, it doesn't make sense when I try it using energy equations. If you set 1/2kx^2 to mgh (where h = x), then the answer you get for x is 2 times the answer you get doing it the proper way. Does anybody know why?
 
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Welcome to PF.

I think you are confusing Force with Work.

The Work to compress the spring is ½kx² and the PE from x=0 is as you expect mgx.

But work is the ∫F⋅x dx and the F is a function of x and is equal to -kx.

When you evaluate that you get Wx = ½kx² = PE = m*g*x

If you wanted to properly use the ½kx² then take the derivative at the point x which happily is kx. The PE as a derivative of x is simply m*g.

And look at that x = mg/k
 
Hi thanks for the reply.
You said that

Wx = ½kx² = PE = m*g*x

Why can't you just solve for x in this step? That's what I've been wondering all along?
 
Because the force varies along the path as a function of x. And work is the integral of the dot product of F and X. And what you are looking at in the ½kx² is the average force across the distance. (1/2*kx)*x = ½kx²

If you look at the curve, the force is a straight line slope of k in x. And the area is 1/2 base*height which represents the area of the "Average Force" across the distance x and that is what equates to the change in potential energy.

If the Force had been k*h across the whole range of x, then that would equal m*g*h.
 
LowlyPion said:
Because the force varies along the path as a function of x. And work is the integral of the dot product of F and X. And what you are looking at in the ½kx² is the average force across the distance. (1/2*kx)*x = ½kx²

If you look at the curve, the force is a straight line slope of k in x. And the area is 1/2 base*height which represents the area of the "Average Force" across the distance x and that is what equates to the change in potential energy.

If the Force had been k*h across the whole range of x, then that would equal m*g*h.

LP, the problem setup doesn't specify the initial condition of the spring. Assuming the spring is neither compressed nor extended, the equilibrium position of the mass plus sping is -mg/k. The displacement at maxium compression is an additional -mg/k.
 
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