- #1
jordi
- 197
- 14
There is an "inconsistency" between SR and QM: the collapse of the wavefunction happens at a given point in time, but SR implies that different observers at different speeds could see either the collapsed wavefunction or the not collapsed wavefunction.
However, this is not a problem: QM is not-relativistic.
QFT "is" a relativistic quantum theory. I have heard (but not understood) that there are no wavefunctions in QFT. In fact, I am embarrassed to admit that I do not understand how the framework of QM (collapse of the wavefunction, ...) fits into QFT.
How does QFT, as a relativistic quantum theory, deal with different observers seeing or not seeing the collapse of a "state" (or wavefunction), in a given observation by an observer?
However, this is not a problem: QM is not-relativistic.
QFT "is" a relativistic quantum theory. I have heard (but not understood) that there are no wavefunctions in QFT. In fact, I am embarrassed to admit that I do not understand how the framework of QM (collapse of the wavefunction, ...) fits into QFT.
How does QFT, as a relativistic quantum theory, deal with different observers seeing or not seeing the collapse of a "state" (or wavefunction), in a given observation by an observer?