What is the Width of the Central Maximum in Single Slit Diffraction?

Patrickas
Messages
20
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


A single slit 10-4m wide(a) is illuminated by plane waves from helium-neon laser ( l = 6.328*10-7m). If the observing screen is 10m(D) away, determine the width of the central maximum(y).



Homework Equations



sin(alpha)=(m+0.5)*l/a


tan(aplha)~sin(alpha)=y/2*D =(I add 2 because its double the distance from the middle to the first minimum above and below the maximum)

y=((1+0.5)*l*2*D)/d


The Attempt at a Solution


plug in the numbers and i get it as 0.19m which is incorrect.

Help anyone?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Patrickas said:

Homework Statement


A single slit 10-4m wide(a) is illuminated by plane waves from helium-neon laser ( l = 6.328*10-7m). If the observing screen is 10m(D) away, determine the width of the central maximum(y).



Homework Equations



sin(alpha)=(m+0.5)*l/a


tan(aplha)~sin(alpha)=y/2*D =(I add 2 because its double the distance from the middle to the first minimum above and below the maximum)

y=((1+0.5)*l*2*D)/d


The Attempt at a Solution


plug in the numbers and i get it as 0.19m which is incorrect.

Help anyone?

alright i seem to have chosen wrong m... i don't understand why is there a path difference of half the wave length then? I mean I understand the double slit interference- that the additional lengh 1 ray must go must be equal to full wave to get constructive interferance. But with single slit i just get lost...
 
Patrickas said:

Homework Equations



sin(alpha)=(m+0.5)*l/a
Another way to think of that is:

sin(alpha) = (#)*l/a

where "#" can be any half integer, i.e. ..., -3/2, -1/2, +1/2, +3/2, ...

The two dark bands closest to the central maximum correspond to "#" = -1/2 and +1/2. So use 1/2, then double the result to get the full width.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top