- #1
copernicus1
- 99
- 0
Hi, I confused about the relationship between light and [itex]c[/itex] on the one hand and massless particles and [itex]c[/itex] on the other. Does light travel at c because it's light and that's all there is to it, or does it travel at c because it just happens to be another massless particle?
I know that classically [itex]c=1/\sqrt{\epsilon_0\mu_0}[/itex], which seems to indicate that the speed of light has everything to do with electromagnetism, but then why does the speed of light apply so much more broadly?
I know that classically [itex]c=1/\sqrt{\epsilon_0\mu_0}[/itex], which seems to indicate that the speed of light has everything to do with electromagnetism, but then why does the speed of light apply so much more broadly?