P3X-018
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Homework Statement
The problem is this:
Let f : R^2 -> R be
f(x,y) = \frac{xy}{(x^2+y^2)^2}\qquad (x,y)\neq(0,0)
With f(0,0) = 0.
Question:
Is f integrable with respect to the Lebesguemeasure m_2 om the set [-1,1]\times[-1,1]?
The Attempt at a Solution
Well f is integrable if and only is
\int_{[-1,1]^2} \vert f\vert\,dm_2(x,y) < \infty
The integral is infinite, and so f isn't integrable.
The thing that makes it confusing, is that in the next problem it says,
Show that both the double integrals exist
\int_{[-1,1]}\left(\int_{[-1,1]} f(x,y)\,dm(x)\right)dm(y)
\int_{[-1,1]}\left(\int_{[-1,1]} f(x,y)\,dm(y)\right)dm(x)
But how can they exist if f isn't integrable?
EDIT:
Hmm I had made an error. It did seem kinda wired that the integral of a positive would give me something like \infty-\infty. The integral is infinite though. The expression I had found would only hold for y > 0.
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