Why Does Reversing Limits of Integration Affect the Answer?

Miike012
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My limits of integration for my angle I chose to be from pi to 0 then I got the negative answer from what was in the book.. Shouldn't that be correct because we are integrating from -3 to 3?
 

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Miike012 said:
My limits of integration for my angle I chose to be from pi to 0 then I got the negative answer from what was in the book.. Shouldn't that be correct because we are integrating from -3 to 3?

What did you get for your answer? I got a positive value for the integral, a tad over 3.
 
Mark44 said:
What did you get for your answer? I got a positive value for the integral, a tad over 3.

when I integrated from pi to 0 I got 1/2pi(cos(9) - 1)
 
That should be -(1/2)pi *(cos(9) - 1). The antiderivative of sin(u) is -cos(u).
 
Mark44 said:
That should be -(1/2)pi *(cos(9) - 1). The antiderivative of sin(u) is -cos(u).
So it is correct to integrate from pi to 0?
 
It's correct to integrate from 0 to pi, like so:
$$ \int_{\theta = 0}^{\pi} \int_{r = 0}^3 sin(r^2)r~dr~d\theta$$

Is that what you meant? If you meant ##\pi## as the lower limit of integration, and 0 as the upper limit, you'll get the opposite value.
 
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