binarybob0001
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I am now studying the Lorentz transformation which shares some commonality with the Galiliean transformation. What I'm confused about is how they only seem to transform the x axis. It will help if I write it out. The Galilean transformation looks like:
x' = x-vt
y' = y
z' = z
t' = t
Although most of the books I have read do not bother, I will put this in matrix form because I will eventually do that with the Lorentz transformation.
<br /> \left(\begin{array}{cccc}<br /> 1 & 0 & 0 & -v &<br /> 0 & 1 & 0 & 0 &<br /> 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 &<br /> 0 & 0 & 0 & 1 <br /> \end{array} \right)<br /> \letf(\begin{array}{c}<br /> x &<br /> y &<br /> z &<br /> t <br /> \end{array} \right) =<br /> \letf(\begin{array}{c}<br /> x' &<br /> y' &<br /> z' &<br /> t'<br /> \end{array} \right)<br />
Pay no attention to the strange layout of the 1 by 4 arrays. I could not figure out how to make them. It is clear that veolocity effects only the x component of the resulting vector. To me that makes no sense. Does anyone know why it is set up this way. I have had no classes on matrices but I work with computer graphics programming and have taught myself much over the summer. I am thinking the book is assuming I also transform the coordinates of the object so that it is traveling only with respect to x and then transform the coordinate space back to the orginal for the final transformation. In that case giving the Lorentz transformation as first listed is not adaquate. Am I right?
x' = x-vt
y' = y
z' = z
t' = t
Although most of the books I have read do not bother, I will put this in matrix form because I will eventually do that with the Lorentz transformation.
<br /> \left(\begin{array}{cccc}<br /> 1 & 0 & 0 & -v &<br /> 0 & 1 & 0 & 0 &<br /> 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 &<br /> 0 & 0 & 0 & 1 <br /> \end{array} \right)<br /> \letf(\begin{array}{c}<br /> x &<br /> y &<br /> z &<br /> t <br /> \end{array} \right) =<br /> \letf(\begin{array}{c}<br /> x' &<br /> y' &<br /> z' &<br /> t'<br /> \end{array} \right)<br />
Pay no attention to the strange layout of the 1 by 4 arrays. I could not figure out how to make them. It is clear that veolocity effects only the x component of the resulting vector. To me that makes no sense. Does anyone know why it is set up this way. I have had no classes on matrices but I work with computer graphics programming and have taught myself much over the summer. I am thinking the book is assuming I also transform the coordinates of the object so that it is traveling only with respect to x and then transform the coordinate space back to the orginal for the final transformation. In that case giving the Lorentz transformation as first listed is not adaquate. Am I right?