I Why is the valence band maxima at k = 0?

nmbr28albert
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In general, materials are either direct or indirect materials. For direct materials, both the valence band maxima and the conduction band minima are at k = 0. For indirect materials, only the valence band maxima is at k = 0 and the conduction band minima is at some other non-zero value of k. In all the books I've read, it seems to always be assumed that the valence band maxima is at k = 0. Is this true, and if so why?
 
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I have always seen the same, I think it's arbitrary defined like this.
 
After some digging, I found that it actually isn't true that the valence band maxima is always at k = 0. In lead sulfide for example, the valence band maximum is at the L point.
 
Graphene and gaphite also come to my mind.
 
Hi. I have got question as in title. How can idea of instantaneous dipole moment for atoms like, for example hydrogen be consistent with idea of orbitals? At my level of knowledge London dispersion forces are derived taking into account Bohr model of atom. But we know today that this model is not correct. If it would be correct I understand that at each time electron is at some point at radius at some angle and there is dipole moment at this time from nucleus to electron at orbit. But how...

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