Why Might the Efficiency of a Stirling Engine Differ from a Carnot Engine?

AI Thread Summary
The efficiency of an ideal Stirling engine is lower than that of an ideal Carnot engine due to differences in their thermodynamic processes. While both engines can be described by the efficiency equation ε = 1 - TL/TH, the Carnot engine operates under reversible conditions with zero entropy change, allowing it to achieve maximum efficiency. In contrast, the Stirling engine involves isochoric processes that result in a non-zero entropy change, meaning it cannot reach the same efficiency as the Carnot engine. The discussion highlights that the Stirling cycle, although closed, does not maintain the same thermodynamic equilibrium as the Carnot cycle. Therefore, the assertion that the Stirling engine's efficiency can match that of the Carnot engine is incorrect.
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Halliday says that the efficiency of an ideal Stirling engine is lower than that of a ideal Carnot engine?? But why??

It seems to me that there efficiency are both \epsilon =1-\frac{T_L}{T_H}

Though Halldiay also say that this equation do not apply to Stirning engine but only to Carnot

Though Stirling engine involves two isochoric process, so unlike carnot which the two isothermal process are connected by adiabatic process, the entropy do change between the two temperature in the Stirling Cycle.

But from \Delta S = nR ln \frac{V_f}{V_i} + nC_V ln \frac{T_f}{T_i}

we can know that the entropy change in the two isochoric process of Stirling cycle canceled out. and still

\frac{|Q_H|}{T_H} = \frac{|Q_L}{T_H} just like Carnot Cycle

So I think efficiency \epsilon=1-\frac{T_L}{T_H} can apply to Stirling


Am I wrong??
 
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Psi-String said:
Halliday says that the efficiency of an ideal Stirling engine is lower than that of a ideal Carnot engine?? But why??

It seems to me that there efficiency are both \epsilon =1-\frac{T_L}{T_H}

Though Halldiay also say that this equation do not apply to Stirning engine but only to Carnot

Though Stirling engine involves two isochoric process, so unlike carnot which the two isothermal process are connected by adiabatic process, the entropy do change between the two temperature in the Stirling Cycle.

But from \Delta S = nR ln \frac{V_f}{V_i} + nC_V ln \frac{T_f}{T_i}

we can know that the entropy change in the two isochoric process of Stirling cycle canceled out. and still

\frac{|Q_H|}{T_H} = \frac{|Q_L}{T_H} just like Carnot Cycle

So I think efficiency \epsilon=1-\frac{T_L}{T_H} can apply to Stirling

Am I wrong??
Yes. The efficiency of a Carnot engine is \epsilon=1-\frac{T_L}{T_H} because \Delta S = 0

Efficiency is work/heat flow: \eta = W/Q_h.
Because W = Qh - Qc \eta = 1 - Q_c/Q_h

Since the heat flow into the Carnot engine is isothermal: \int dS = \int dQ/T = Q_h/T_h and for the heat flow out: \int dS = Q_c/T_c. If the change in entropy is 0:

Q_c/T_c = Q_h/T_h or Q_c/Q_h = T_c/T_h

If \Delta S \ne 0 then you cannot equate Tc/Th to Qc/Qh.

AM
 
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But isn't \Delta S=0 for Stirling cycle?
Stirling engine is a closed path, doesn't that also imply that the entropy change in one stirling cycle is also zero??
 
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Psi-String said:
But isn't \Delta S=0 for Stirling cycle?
Stirling engine is a closed path, doesn't that also imply that the entropy change in one stirling cycle is also zero??
No. The Stirling engine is a real engine. If you store the work output you cannot run the cylcle in reverse to get back to the original conditions without adding more work than it produced on the forward cycle. Since it is not reversible, \Delta S \ne 0

The Carnot is reversible. It operates at constant thermodynamic equilibirum using infinitessimal temperature differerences and slow adiabatic compressions and expansions. If you store the work output, you can use that work to reverse the cycle by an infinitessimal change in conditions.

AM
 
I see. thanks
 
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