nhrock3
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f(x)=\frac{e^{\frac{1}{z-1}}}{e^z-1}
if we go z=0^+ f(z)=+infinity
if we go z=0^- f(z)=-infinity
we don't have a limit here
so why its a pole
??
by my definition a pole is when f(z)=\frac{g(z)}{(a-z)^n}
if g is analitical at g(a) then 'a' in th n'th order pole
but in my case there is no (a-z)^n representation
and i proved that there is no limit
if we go z=0^+ f(z)=+infinity
if we go z=0^- f(z)=-infinity
we don't have a limit here
so why its a pole
??
by my definition a pole is when f(z)=\frac{g(z)}{(a-z)^n}
if g is analitical at g(a) then 'a' in th n'th order pole
but in my case there is no (a-z)^n representation
and i proved that there is no limit
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