Would The Cross Product of x and x be z0?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the mathematical properties of the cross product, specifically whether the cross product of a vector with itself results in a zero vector and its implications in three-dimensional space. Participants explore the definitions and geometric interpretations of the cross product in the context of linear dependence and independence.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants assert that the cross product of a vector with itself is always zero in R^3, as it requires two linearly independent vectors to define a plane.
  • Others clarify that the cross product is normal to the plane formed by the two vectors, leading to confusion about the direction of a zero-length vector.
  • A participant suggests that the question may involve a specific vector in Cartesian coordinates and discusses the implications of the zero-length vector's direction.
  • There is a challenge regarding the interpretation of the plane formed by a single vector or two parallel vectors, with some arguing that no unique plane can be defined in such cases.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the interpretation of the cross product and its geometric implications, indicating that the discussion remains unresolved with multiple competing perspectives.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of defining terms such as 'x' and 'z0' for clarity, and there are references to the geometric interpretation of vectors and planes that may depend on specific definitions.

Meadman23
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Just like the title says, would that technically be true?


I know the cross product is normal to the plane of the two vectors being crossed, which would make it z. However, since the angle between two vectors is 0, sin (0) = 0...
 
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You will have to define what 'x' and 'z0' are for your question to make any sense.
 
Hey Meadman23.

The cross product of A x A will always be zero if we are working in R^3. The basic reason is because to define a plane in 3D space, you need two vectors that are linearly independent. If you have two vectors that are linearly dependent, then all you get is a line and a unique plane can not be formed from a single line.
 
I think he means if you take a vector v in cartesian coords: ##\vec{v}=x\vec{\imath}## and is asking the result of taking the cross product with itself is a zero length vector pointing in the z direction - i.e. ##\vec{v}\times\vec{v}=0\vec{k}## ...which, as soon as you write it out, you see, the answer is "yes and no".

Chiro is correct - and the result is found directly from the definition of the cross product.
OP seems to be trying to understand it geometrically in terms of an area.

The trick is to ask if it makes sense to talk about the direction of a zero-length vector.
A vector zero in the z direction would be (x,y,z)=(0,0,0) and zero in the x direction would be just the same, after all.

@Meadman23: your recent questions have been getting more and more to do with things that are normally covered by entry-level college classes. Some of your earlier questions indicate you are taking electrical engineering at college level - is that the case?
 
Meadman23 said:
Just like the title says, would that technically be true?


I know the cross product is normal to the plane of the two vectors being crossed, which would make it z.
No, it wouldn't. There is NO plane determined by a single vector (or two parallel vectors)- except the plane perpendicular to the vector itself. The cross product of x with any vector lies in that plane (which includes both the y and z axes).

However, since the angle between two vectors is 0, sin (0) = 0...
 

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