Z-particle creation with relativistic e-beams

Sojourner01
Messages
371
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


The aim in a particle scattering event is to let an electron and a positron collide and annihilate each other to form a Z-particle. The (rest) masses of these particles are given by:
m_e- c^2 = m_e+ c^2 = 0.511 MeV
m_Z c^2 = 91.187GeV

There are two ways the experiment could be done. One way is to take a beam of positrons and fire these at a target containing (almost) stationary electrons. The other is to take a beam of positrons and a beam of electrons moving with equal speeds in opposite directions.

Determine the energies required in the two different processes.

Homework Equations



Given in accompanying notes:

\\mathbb{P}_1 \\cdot \\mathbb{P}_1 = -(m_i c)^2<br /> =(\\mathbb{P}_3 - \\mathbb{P}_2) \\cdot ( \\mathbb{P}_3 - \\mathbb{P}_2)<br /> =-(m_3 c)^2 - (m_2 c)^2 + 2 m_3 c E_2 / c

This formula replaces one P term of the final term with E2/c - which is fair enough, makes sense. To solve for a target case, there's a little jigging about but the method is essentially the same.

The problem I have is that using this method - taking conservation of momentum and ensuring that the zero 3-momentum term of the electron's 4-momentum cancels in the dot product, I can't see why one cannot solve this equation in exactly the same way for the electron and the positron, thus giving the same answer.

The Attempt at a Solution



See above - it's the given formula I have a problem with, not the method itself. I'd like to use what I've been given if at all possible.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Your tex didn't come out so well. But the thing to remember is that M_Z*c^2 worth of mass energy in the center of mass frame in each case.
 
Gah. I can never get the hand of tex.

Nevermind. I've sorted this out now, problem solved.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top