lethe
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don't want my words on PF
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Originally posted by lethe
oh and i assume that you know what it means for vectors to be linearly independent,
and what a basis of a vector space is.
Originally posted by lethe
now, hopefully we are all pretty comfortable with what a normal euclidean vector is. it s basically just an arrow between two points. it has a magnitude and a direction. right?
yes, i do want to de-emphasize the notion of a vector as an arrow with direction. in the next post to come, i will write the definition of an abstract vector space, and ask that the reader abandon any preconceptions about vectors as arrows, and think of a vector as mathematical object obeying certain alebraic rules.Originally posted by Tom
I don't know if this is going to be an issue with what you are going to bring up later, but when I teach special relativity I try to get the students to stop thinking of vectors in this way, because the "magnitude and direction" definition of a vector is only good for Euclidean space.
well, i m not sure that i want to emphasize a definition that relies on transformations, we want to delay any introduction of coordinates and metrics/inner products as much as possible. orthogonality relies on the metric, so i don t want to talk about it. transformation rules of vectors rely on the introduction of coordinates on the manifold, so i don t want to talk about that either, at least to start. i want to define, e.g. tangent vectors to a manifold without any reference to local coordinates, and then derive the transformation rule for coordinate transformations, including rotations.
When something is said to be a "vector", one has to specify a set of transformations with respect to which that object is a vector. In the case of Euclidean 3-space, that set of transformations is rotations and parity.
Definition: A vector in Euclidean 3-space (E3) is a mathematical object that transforms under rotations R and parity Π as follows.
x-->x'=Rx
x-->x'=Πx=-x
where R is an orthogonal matrix (RTR=1). Orthogonality is important because the norm of the vector must be preserved under the rotation.
Explicitly, we must have:
v'.v'=v.v
in terms of row and column vectors (vT and v, respectively):
v'Tv'=vTRTRv
For the equality of the inner products to hold, we can see that we must have RTR=1.
IMO, when vectors are defined in terms of transformations, the extension to other vector spaces and to higher rank tensors in the same vector space is most natural.
of course.
Lethe, if you don't mind, could you wait to post the next section for another day? I would like to pick a few exercises out of my linear algebra to reinforce this stuff.
I don't know if this is going to be an issue with what you are going to bring up later, but when I teach special relativity I try to get the students to stop thinking of vectors in this way, because the "magnitude and direction" definition of a vector is only good for Euclidean space.
[1 2 0|0]
[V|[b]0[/b]]=[2 -1 5|0]
[3 4 2|0]
[1 2 0|0]
[V|[b]0[/b]]=[0 -5 5|0]
[0 0 0|0]
[1 -2 1| a]
[A|[b]v[/b]]=[-1 3 2| b]
[0 1 4| c]
[1 0 0|10a+9b-7c]
[A|[b]v[/b]]=[0 1 0|4a+4b-3c]
[0 0 1|-a-b+c]
Originally posted by Tom
Lethe, that's all I wanted to say. The floor is yours.
well, this is supposed to be a suicidal crash course in linear algebra, and cover all the prerequisites. i don t know if that is too ambitious a hope, but at least you re trying. that is promising.Originally posted by gnome
Yikes, lethe, is this thread intended for those of us who haven't taken linear algebra yet, or is that another prerequisite that you neglected to mention? I would like to try to follow it, but it looks like it will require a fair amount of "outside" reading.
OK, yes, a plane is flat 2-dimensional space. an example of a non-flat 2-dimensional space would be the surface of a sphere, or torus (doughnut).
Please try to clarify the concept of a manifold. You said that "a manifold is just a space that is not necessarily flat." I guess that doesn't really help me until I fully understand the concept of a flat space. I mean, it's clear enough that a plane is a 2 dimensional flat space (I hope), but what is a flat 3-space, a flat 4-space, etc.?
not much. for example, the flat space is itself a manifold. so the line, and the plane, those are both manifolds. but a manifold is not necessarily flat. so the circle and the sphere are also manifolds, but they are not flat spaces. what makes them a manifold is that if you are standing very very close to a sphere, and you forgot your glasses, and you don t look around you, you re just looking at one point on the sphere, right on top of your nose, then it will look like it is flat space, and you might not realize that it is actually a sphere.
The examples you gave of curved lines and curved surfaces don't really convey the essence of "manifoldness" (whatever that is). Presumably a space is not necessarily flat. So what distinguishes a manifold from a space?
Next problem:
what course would cover rotations, parity and orthogonality? I haven't come across any of these terms before (at least not in this context). Should I be trying to read about them now, or is that unnecessary?
Also, your summary of the properties that a set of vectors must have to be called a vector space is clear enough, but can you define or explain the concept of a vector space in words?
Originally posted by On Radioactive Waves
lethe, will this basicly be the same as that other thread or have you revised it at all?
not a problem. it doesn t have to look flat to everyone, to be a manifold, it only has to look flat to someone who is really really close. and how close you would have to be might depend on how curvy the space is. a really sharply turning curve only looks flat if you re super close, whereas a very broadly turning curve, you don t have to be so close to.Originally posted by gnome
If a manifold is simply a space that either is actually flat or is curvy but up close looks flat, then a Lilliputian and a Brobdingnagian might disagree as to whether a particular space is a manifold. That's not a problem?
As to vectors, you said "nowhere does a vector space allow you to multiply 2 vectors". So, the vector cross-product doesn't apply to this discussion?
Originally posted by lethe
what do i mean by curvy (non-flat)? what is an example of a curvy 3-dimensional space? well this is a bit tricky to explain. recall that my examples of non-flat 2-dimensional spaces were surfaces drawn in R 3. it is the case that you always need to draw your space in some R n, where n is more than the dimension of your space. the reason is, that the space neds extra room to bend. like when you bend the line into a circle, you need the second dimension to bend into, even though your space (the circle) is only 1-dimensional. when you bend a plane into a sphere, you need the third dimension to bend around, even though the space (the sphere) is only 2-dimensional. so non-flat 3-dimensional space can only fit in some R nif n is 4 or more.
Originally posted by jeff
You're talking about "extrinsic" curvature which describes how a surface is embedded in a higher dimensional space. It is the type of curvature in terms of which we ordinarily perceive and describe shapes. However, it's really a surface's "intrinsic" curvature that's of interest here.
Originally posted by lethe
i was just trying to give a layman description of what it means for a higher dimensional space to be flat or not flat. just an intuitive picture.
Originally posted by lethe
...we have not introduced any metric, so curvature, either intrinsic or extrinsic, is not defined.
Originally posted by jeff
It's simply wrong - whatever the theme of this thread - to describe "what it means for a higher dimensional space to be flat or not flat" in terms of it's embedding in a higher dimensional space. As you pointed out, surfaces can have the same intrinsic curvature but different extrinsic curvatures.
True, but one doesn't need the metric to distinguish between surfaces that are flat and curved. All one needs is the idea of parallel transport which requires only a connection to define.
Originally posted by lethe
...differential forms are specifically designed to be metric independent.
Originally posted by lethe
there are a lot of things that you can do on a differentiable manifold without... a metric. like integration...
Originally posted by lethe
...we have not introduced any metric, so curvature, either intrinsic or extrinsic, is not defined.
i hadn t thought of it that way, an interesting point, i will think about that some more.Originally posted by jeff
Unless the domain of integration is restricted, integration over a manifold in general requires a partition of unity, which is no easier to explain than parallel transport.
I failed to mention that a metric isn't needed to define the (intrinsic) curvature.
jeff!
I do understand what you're trying to do. I apologize if I'm annoying you. My style of technical writing is very dry and sometimes comes across as obnoxious or unfriendly.
Originally posted by Hurkyl
I'm curious what everyone thinks the intended audience is; I got the impression at the beginning we were going to aim at something someone fresh out of multivariable calc could understand, but the bar has been raised fairly swiftly as the thread has developed...
Originally posted by lethe
i am under the impression that curvature is a geometric quantity, and that a manifold, as we have defined it, is just a topological space. is there such a notion as a "topological curvature"?...to define intrinsic curvature. what exactly do you need?
Originally posted by lethe
the lesson that has been drilled into my head over and over again is: introduce any geometry dependent structures as late as possible. it is advantageous to distinguish between those objects that are geometric and those that are topological. in the end, your geometry might be dynamic, or unknown. or you might prefer to work with a symplectic manifold, instead of a riemannian one.
Originally posted by lethe
of course, even from a purely topological standpoint, you can still make your argument: to homeomorphic (instead of isometric, as you were arguing) manifolds are the same.
OK, yes, my language was sloppy there. what i meant by that was the definition of a manifold does not include any geometrical structures (metrics, connections, etc).Originally posted by jeff
Manifolds are more than just topological spaces because with each open set Uα comes a homeomorphism φα:Uα → Rn. If the transition functions φβοφα-1:φα(Uα∩Uβ) → φβ(Uα∩Uβ) are differentiable, the manifold has a differentiable structure; if analytic, an analytic structure etc.
wait a second. are you saying that the kronecker delta that pairs up the dual space with the tangent space can be used to build a connection? that doesn t seem right to me... can you explain that in a little more detail?
To define intrinsic curvature, the manifold must have at least a C2 differentiable structure and a connection. Whatever indicial contractions that need be made only require the kronecker delta that comes for free and relates the contravariant and covariant spaces as duals of each other.
this is exactly the school of thought in which i find myself, at the moment. well, i am aware that the connection in gauge theory (the gauge potential) has nothing to do with a metric, but i m not very clear about the relation between the two kinds of connection.
Sometimes there's confusion about this in people who've studied GR because in that theory a metric is introduced that determines the connection, and of course contractions are made with the metric. Also, sometimes people hear that curvature is a geometric property and understand such properties as requiring a metric to define.
I don't quite understand what you meant by this. Yes, homeomorphisms relate topologically equivalent spaces and isometries are metric preserving diffeomorphisms, but we've yet to introduce a metric.
Originally posted by lethe
are you saying that the kronecker delta that pairs up the dual space with the tangent space can be used to build a connection?
Originally posted by lethe
manifolds with the same intrinsic geometry are (locally) isometric
Originally posted by lethe
the vector itself is coordinate independent, but the components are not, and the basis vectors are not (that sounds a little redundant, eh? the basis vectors are not independent of the basis vectors. heh. fsck off.)
OK, it should be easy to show that the set of tangent vectors, thusly defined, satisy the axioms of the vector space. i will call this vector space TMp. that is, the tangent space to the manifold M at the point p is TMp. for an n dimensional manifold, the tangent space is always an n dimensional vector space.
this should make some sense, because on a curved manifold, you can only consider directions between two infinitesmally close points: the arrow pointing between to finitely separated points on, say, a circle, is not a tangent vector to the circle, only infinitely close points determine a tangent vector. to determine tangent vectors between two infinitesimally close points, you have to take a limit, and you will end up with a derivative.
nevertheless, a lot of people have a hard time swallowing this equation, including me when i first learned it. why are coordinate derivatives vectors? well, let me just say, think carefully about what s written here, and please, ask questions. it s subtle, and if you can t really convince yourself of why, then just take it as given, so that you can procede with the rest of the thread.
Originally posted by lethe
let me explain that a little further: a linear functional on the vector space says "take a vector, spit out a number". a vector says "take a function on the manifold, spit out a number". so for each function on the manifold, i can assign to it a linear functional that spits out the same number when it acts on the vector, as the vector spits out when it acts on the function. for any function ƒ, let me call this associated linear functional dƒ. the d will come to have a familiar meaning, but for right now, it just means find the linear functional who spits out the number required. it s just a symbol that means "the linear functional associated with the function ƒ".
read that paragraph again, and see if you can follow it. let me write down what i said above, using the symbols we have introduced:
dƒ(v) = v(ƒ) (4)
on the left hand side, we have a linear functional in the dual space acting on a vector in the tangent space, and on the right hand side, we have that same vector , it remembered that in addition to being a vector in the tangent space, it is also a differential operator, and as a differential operator it is acting on the function associated with my linear functional.
the linear functional takes the vector to the same number that the vector takes the associated function.
be careful of my use of the words function and functional. there isn t any deep difference between the two words, they are just usually used in different contexts. the word functional is usually reserved for mappings that act on vectors or more complicated objects, and functions usually act on numbers.
so dƒ is a functional that acts on vectors, and ƒ is a function, that acts on numbers. (well actually, in our case, it acts on points in our manfold M.)
sorry if i m getting repetitive here, but this is important, and i want to make it clear.
OK, so let's explore some properties of these 1 forms. first of all, let s write down the dual basis, {σν}. these are, by definition, linear functionals such that σν(eμ) = δνμ (eq. (1) above). where {eμ} is the basis for the vector space. but remember, for the tangent space, we already chose a basis, the coordinate basis {∂μ}. also, like we discussed above, our dual space linear functionals on the tangent space can be associated with functions on the manifold. so let s do that for each σν: σν = dƒν, where ƒν is some function on the manifold that we will determine.
with these changes, let s rewrite that condition for the dual basis (1):
dƒν(∂μ) = δνμ (5)
now using (4) above, this becomes:
dƒν(∂μ) = ∂μƒν = ∂ƒν/∂xμ = δνμ
now, can you think of a function whose derivative with respect to xμ is 1, and whose derivative with respect to all other coordinates is 0? it s easy..
think about it...
got it?
it s ƒμ = xμ! no sweat!
OK, so then the dual basis of the 1 forms is just {dxν}. now let s check what the components of a general 1 form are in terms of this basis:
dƒ = ανdxν
where αν are the components of the 1 form. let s solve for those components by acting this 1 form on a basis vector of the tangent space.
dƒ(∂μ) = ανdxν(∂μ)
∂μƒ = αν∂μxν = ανδνμ = αμ
i have used (4) twice in the second equation there.
how about that! the components of the 1 form αν are just the partial derivatives of the function!
dƒ = ∑(∂ƒ/∂xν)dxν = ∂νƒdxν (6)
now that equation should look familiar perhaps to some of you from your calc classes. it s just the chain rule of multivariable calculus, or at least it looks like it. this explains why we used the symbol "d" to create a 1 form out of a function, because it is done by simply differentiating. at first "d" was just a symbol to associate a linear functional with a function on the manifold. but now we see that it is actually a differential operator on the functions. this "d" operator we will see again, it is called the exterior derivative. it is very important. it is the "d" that appears in the integrand of stoke s theorem.
Originally posted by marcus
this is a good rough and ready writing style which shows a sensitivity to the occasional points where a reader might experience difficulty but which never seems to talk down (as to an inferior). This is a good style and not everyone can achieve it consistently, or so I think anyway. but there are some typographical boxes which I will experiment with getting rid of.
This is surprising. the boxes all went away simply by a font change. complements on the text L. as it is really quite nicely done
Originally posted by lethe
thanks for the compliment. i enjoy writing this a lot, and i appreciate your encouragement.
by the way, what font did you use? if it s just a matter of changing fonts, i d be more than happy to try a different font. are you using the default font? what id that, courier?
Originally posted by lethe
thanks for the compliment. i enjoy writing this a lot, and i appreciate your encouragement...
Originally posted by marcus
Lethe, I'm hoping that time permitting you will continue the exposition of diff forms.
I will tell you a personal wish motivating my interest in 1-forms. I would like to better assimilate the idea of a
(quoting Carlo Rovelli)
"a 1-form field in a principal Lorentz bundle over the spacetime manifold M whose fiber is Minkowski space M[/size]."
Now, we must define the wedge product of two 1-forms. if you followed my definition of the tensor product, this will be easy:
σ/\ω = σ⊗ω - ω⊗σ
easy enough. let s check how that new wedge product acts on our two vectors:
σ/\ω(v,w) = σ(v)ω(w) - ω(v)σ(w)
one obvious property of this new product is that it is alternating, which means that if you switch the order of the two vectors that you feed to it, you pick up a minus sign from the original product before you switched:
σ/\ω(w,v) = σ(w)ω(v) - ω(w)σ(v) = ω(v)σ(w) - σ(v)ω(w) = -(σ(v)ω(w) - ω(v)σ(w)) = -σ/\ω(v,w)
also, the wedge product is itself antisymmetric, meaning that if you switch the order that you multiply the to 1-forms in, you again pick up a minus sign:
ω/\σ = ω⊗σ - σ⊗ω = - (σ⊗ω - ω⊗σ) = -σ/\ω
compare this with the tensor product: if you switch the order of the two vectors you input, you get a new number with no general relationship. and if you switch the order of the two 1-forms that you re taking the tensor product of, you get a new tensor that is in no general way related to the original tensor.
anyway, i define a 2-form to be the wedge product of two 1-forms. we can get to a p-form by simply taking the wedge product of p 1-forms, using these definitions.
next up, we will investigate a few more of the algebraic properties of the wedge product.
dƒ is the differential form. d is the exterior derivative.Originally posted by cephas
In equation 4. dƒ(v) = v(ƒ) is the d, which is the linear functional, actaully the diffenrial form for which we are trying to solve?
this is a fine example of a function on the cartesian plane. can you tell me what the exterior derivative of this function is? (Hint: 2x dx)
Also, about the functions on the manifolds, suppose my manifold is just flat 2-d space, the cartesian plane. Can I say my function is x^2? IS this what is meant by function. It doesn't have to be a vector function, does it?
well, the most convenient way for me to tell you what a vector space looks like is to choose a basis for the vector space. then i can tell you that the vector space is just the span of that basis.
Also, early I was asking for an example, and i guess what i meant was something that went through the whole process. Like what would the tangent space be for the cartesian plane?
yes, a 1-form is a single linear functional. a 1-form is just one member from the set of all possible members. yes, there are many 1-forms available for a given tangent space. in fact, an infinite number. they form an n-dimensional vector space called the cotangent space.
When you say "a 1-form is simply a member of the dual space to the tangent space at a point. " does that mean it is just one linear functional of the tangent space since you said member? If this is so, does this mean you can have multiple 1-forms for a given tangent space or did I misunderstand your wording? Perhaps it is that we are trying to solve for the "right" member of the dual space to the tangent space that allows equation 4 to work?
hey, thanks for reading! i m happy to do it!
I am sure if I sat and stared at your posts some more I could come up with lots more questions, but I will get the answers to these first. I must say I am really enjoying this, tonight I felt like I actaully figured a lot more of it then the last time I read it.