strid said:
ok... sure.. you can live in ignorance
This comment is best reserved for the peculiar character you see when you look in the mirror.
and don't care of the somewhat interesting fact that 0 doenst vehave as other integers/rational numbers...
All integers behave differently. Can you find me more than one integer x such that 2+x=3?
ALL the arithmatic operations are applicable on EVERY rational number, but not 0...
Nor do we require this. We want the real numbers to form a
field, because fields have many useful properties.
and how many times don't you exclude 0 from things just because it won't work...
If you can quote me five distinct instances of that, I will buy you a Coke. Funny though that you didn't exclude it when you said 100%. What I suggest is that you think of zero as a
placeholder for decimal notation; surely you can see the usefulness of that? Otherwise, read on.
Really, the problem is that you don't know how the natural numbers are formally defined. Try learning some set theory; you can start
here. Look in particular at the axiom of infinity. Now this defines the natural numbers. Integers are formally defined as pairs of naturals mod. an equivalence relation; rationals are then defined as pairs of integers mod. another equivalence relation; the reals are constructed from Cauchy sequences of rationals etc. These constructions are done so that various properties can be formally proved, not because we like it so. Thinking of numbers as having some sort of correspondence to the 'real world' (by which I mean the view that the number one comes from 'one apple', the number two comes from 'two apples' and so on) is fine to do grade school arithmetic; it already fails in high school since there are no 'pi apples' and there never will be, and is utterly useless for formal study in university and beyond.
Did you know that there are spaces where zero can mean something totally different? For example, in the L
2 space of square integrable functions on the real line, take the function f defined such that f(x)=1 for x rational and f(x)=0 for x irrational; this function is then formally equivalent to zero. But to know that, you need to know a lot more mathematics than it seems you know.
I'll stop this discussion then, because people seem to not be interested in more than what their mathbook say to them, and seem to not be able to do some thinking of their own. No, because if you need to think you refuse by saying "that is philosophy". I bet none of you will never come up with something new in the mathematics...
And you will lose that bet. If this is the way you want to approach things, don't let the door hit you on the way out.