Can I Prove Perpendicular Acceleration Using d(v^2)/dt = 0?

  • Thread starter Thread starter LD_90
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Acceleration
AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on proving that the acceleration of a particle moving at constant speed is perpendicular to its instantaneous velocity using the equation d(v^2)/dt = 0. One participant argues that this method is direct since it leverages the information of constant speed, while another suggests a more physical approach using Newton's second law. By taking the dot product of force and velocity, they conclude that the work done is zero, indicating that acceleration must be perpendicular to velocity. This conclusion reinforces the initial claim about the nature of acceleration in uniform motion. The conversation emphasizes the validity of both mathematical and physical reasoning in understanding this concept.
LD_90
Messages
11
Reaction score
0
The acceleration of a particle moving at constant speed is perpendicular to its instantaneous velocity. How can I show this by using the fact that
d(v^2)/dt=d(v. v )/dt=0?

This doesn't seem like the most direct way to look at the concept. Help me out.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I think that it is, indeed, the most direct way, since you utilize the sole information you have been given, namely that the speed is constant.
Since the speed is constant, you have the equation d/dt(v^(2))=0 immediately at your disposal.
 
I've thought a bit more of your complaint; possibly you would prefer a more
"physical" argument, rather than what perhaps seems like mathematical "trickery" and "waving with the magic wand".
So, I'll give a second argument, based on Newton's second law:
(Forgive me for not "LATEX"-ing the code, I'll use the symbol "." for the dot product in the remainder)

Newton's second law states:
F=ma

Form the dot product:

F.v=ma.v

Integrate this from 0 to an arbitrary T:

int(0 to T)F.vdt=1/2mv^(2)(t=T)-1/2mv^(2)(t=0)

Since the speed is given as constant in time, we necessarily have:

int(0 to T)F.vdt=0, for ARBITRARY CHOICE OF T!

This means, that we necessarily have F.v=0 for all times!
Or, going back to Newton's 2 law again:
0=ma.v-->a.v=0, a is perpendicular on v
 
Thank you arildno. It all clicked after I read your first post.
 
Thread 'Variable mass system : water sprayed into a moving container'
Starting with the mass considerations #m(t)# is mass of water #M_{c}# mass of container and #M(t)# mass of total system $$M(t) = M_{C} + m(t)$$ $$\Rightarrow \frac{dM(t)}{dt} = \frac{dm(t)}{dt}$$ $$P_i = Mv + u \, dm$$ $$P_f = (M + dm)(v + dv)$$ $$\Delta P = M \, dv + (v - u) \, dm$$ $$F = \frac{dP}{dt} = M \frac{dv}{dt} + (v - u) \frac{dm}{dt}$$ $$F = u \frac{dm}{dt} = \rho A u^2$$ from conservation of momentum , the cannon recoils with the same force which it applies. $$\quad \frac{dm}{dt}...
TL;DR Summary: I came across this question from a Sri Lankan A-level textbook. Question - An ice cube with a length of 10 cm is immersed in water at 0 °C. An observer observes the ice cube from the water, and it seems to be 7.75 cm long. If the refractive index of water is 4/3, find the height of the ice cube immersed in the water. I could not understand how the apparent height of the ice cube in the water depends on the height of the ice cube immersed in the water. Does anyone have an...
Back
Top