klondike said:
And clearly, f(t) is not absolutely integrable, but its FT does exist:
<br />
F(\omega)=\pi \delta (\omega -\Omega)+ \pi \delta (\omega+\Omega)<br />
Make sense?
That depends very much on what you mean by 'exist'! At the most elementary level (i.e. the math you learned in your basic calculus sequence in college), that Fourier transform doesn't exist.
To be able to use 'generalized functions' (such as the Dirac delta), you have to set up some additional mathematical scaffolding. And then to use the Fourier transform on them (or even things like derivatives), that's a bit more scaffolding.
If Wikipedia is to be trusted, if the Fourier transform is of primary interest, then the right scaffolding is the space of
tempered distributions. The natural definition for the Fourier transform of a tempered distribution is implicitly through the following integral equation:
\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \mathcal{F} \{ f \} \phi = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} f \mathcal{F} \{ \phi \}
where
f denotes any tempered distribution and \phi denotes any 'well-behaved' function. It turns out that the Fourier transform of a tempered distribution is a tempered distribution -- so in this context, Fourier transforms
always exist.
Every 'somewhat well-behaved' function can be viewed as a tempered distribution -- the basic requirement is that it doesn't grow 'too fast' at infinity. And every tempered distribution can be written as a limit of distributions that came from somewhat well-behaved functions. (e.g. you do this when you write the Dirac delta as a 'limit' of ordinary functions)