Bell's derivation; socks and Jaynes

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Hello,

For this little discussion I base myself on Bell's paper on Bertlmann's socks:
http://cdsweb.cern.ch/record/142461

Although I have participated in a number of discussions about Bell's theorem, I always had the uneasy feeling not to fully understand the definitions of symbols and the notation - in particular how to account for lambda in probability calculations.

So, although I intend to discuss here the validity (or not) of Jayne's criticism of Bell's equation no.11, I'll start very much more basic. Using Bell's example of socks, I think that we could write for example:

P1(pink) = 0.5

Here P1(pink) stands for the probability to observe a pink sock on the left foot on an arbitrary day. An experimental estimation of it is found by taking the total from many observations, divided by the number of observations.

As the colour depends on Bertlmann's mood, we can then account for that mood as an unknown variable "lambda" (here I will just put X, for unknown). However, any local realistic theory that proposes such an unknown variable as explanation, still must predict the same observed result. Therefore, I suppose that if we include X as causal factor, we must still write:

P1(pink|X) = 0.5

Thus far correct?
 
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harrylin said:
P1(pink) = 0.5

Here P1(pink) stands for the probability to observe a pink sock on the left foot on an arbitrary day. An experimental estimation of it is found by taking the total from many observations, divided by the number of observations.

As the colour depends on Bertlmann's mood, we can then account for that mood as an unknown variable "lambda" (here I will just put X, for unknown). However, any local realistic theory that proposes such an unknown variable as explanation, still must predict the same observed result. Therefore, I suppose that if we include X as causal factor, we must still write:

P1(pink|X) = 0.5

Thus far correct?
I don't think this is quite correct. Rather, if X correlates with Bertlmann wearing a pink sock then P1(pink|X)=(P1(pink)/P(X))>0.5. Instead, \int{}P_1(pink|X)P(X)dX=P_1(pink)=0.5 (obviously if X is a causal factor it must correlate with P1(pink)). I think what Bell is saying in equation 11 is that if one knew λ (in addition to the local conditions) there would be no residual correlations between the distributions of the measurements (after accounting for its effects).
 
IsometricPion said:
I don't think this is quite correct. Rather, if X correlates with Bertlmann wearing a pink sock then P1(pink|X)=(P1(pink)/P(X))>0.5. Instead, \int{}P_1(pink|X)P(X)dX=P_1(pink)=0.5 (obviously if X is a causal factor it must correlate with P1(pink)). [..]).
Thanks for that clarification! I had not looked at it that way. However, X is like EPR's hidden function: Bertlmann's unknown and unpredictable mood determines what socks he will wear. X stands for the physical model, which is here an invisible random function (indeed, it happens in his head) that delivers one of {pink, not pink}. Obviously the chance to observe a Bertlmann pair of socks on Bertlmann's feet is simply 1. Then we must have, for the case that half of the time a pink sock is observed on the left foot:
P1(pink|X)=P1(pink)/P(X) = P1(pink)/1 =0.5

It's exactly the same as for a fair coin: P(head | fair coin) = 0.5.

I can imagine that someone would like to split the probability estimation up into unknown "knowns": then we can separate it into the cases that Bertlmann decides to put a pink sock on his left leg, and the cases that he decides to put another colour on his left leg. However, what we are interested in the result over many times, and then we are necessarily back at where we were here above. Thus, I don't see any use for that.
 
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harrylin said:
X stands for the physical model, which is here an invisible random function (indeed, it happens in his head) that delivers one of {pink, not pink}. Obviously the chance to observe a Bertlmann pair of socks on Bertlmann's feet is simply 1. Then we must have, for the case that half of the time a pink sock is observed on the left foot:
P1(pink|X)=P1(pink)/P(X) = P1(pink)/1 =0.5

It's exactly the same as for a fair coin: P(head | fair coin) = 0.5.
I misinterpreted what you meant by X. I took it to mean a variable taking on values from the set of moods, some subset of which would correlate with Bertlmann wearing a pink sock instead of the mood model itself. In the latter case, I certainly agree with your results.

Edit: A couple of papers that may be relevant to this discussion: Jaynes' view of EPR, a critque of Jaynes' view
 
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@IsometricPion: thanks for the links! I suspect that our own discussion here, which is based on http://cdsweb.cern.ch/record/142461, will show that the Arxiv paper misses the point; we'll see! o:)

instead of running to eq.11, I will first work out the example that Bell gave in his introduction, as he did not do so himself.
Note that in Bell's paper the pictures come after the text. I'll start with a partial re-take.

Elaborating on Bell's example of Bertlmann's socks, we could write for example:

P1(pink) = 0.5

Here P1(pink) stands for the probability to observe a pink sock on the left foot on an arbitrary day. An experimental estimation of it is found by taking the total from many observations, divided by the number of observations.

As the colour depends on Bertlmann's mood, we can account for that mood as an unknown function "lambda" (here I will just put X, for unknown). However, any "classical" theory that proposes such a physical model, still must predict the same observed result. Therefore, if we include X as invisible cause for the outcome, we must still write:

P1(pink|X) = 0.5
(Compare: P(head | fair coin) = 0.5)

Similarly we can write for the right leg:

P2(pink|X) = 0.5

Bell remarks:
Which colour he will have on a given foot on a given day is quite unpredictable. But when you see that the first sock is pink you can already be sure that the second sock will not be pink. Observation of the first, and experience of Bertlmann, gives immediate information about the second.
The fact that "pink" on the left foot implies "not pink" on the right foot implies a strong correlation between results. We can acknowledge that correlation as follows, with for convenience a slight change of notation:

P(L,R|X) =/= P1(L|X) P2(R|X)

Here L stands for "pink on left leg", and R stands for "pink on right leg".

Ok so far?
 
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pink = 1, not pink = -1

then:
P(LR) = 0, because L and R are always different;

formally:
P(LR) = P(L|R)*P(R); P(R) = P(L) = 1/2;
but: P(L|R) = 0 <> P(L); (both socks have never the same colour)corr = 0 - 1 = -1, full anti-correlation.And using Bell reasoning:
P(LR) = P(L)*P(R) = 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/4;

corr = 2*1/4 - 2*1/4 = 0.

Two random socks, and completely independent, of course.
 
@ alsor: it appears that in this matter we both agree with Jaynes.:-p
However, again you ran far ahead of me and I'm not sure if everyone who, so far, didn't "see" this point of Jaynes etc., could follow you. So, I'll continue my slow pace to make sure that everyone who watches this topic can follow me and that we all agree on the basic facts as well as notation. I'll catch up with you later. :wink:
 
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alsor said:
And using Bell reasoning:
P(LR) = P(L)*P(R) = 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/4;

corr = 2*1/4 - 2*1/4 = 0.

Two random socks, and completely independent, of course.
This misrepresents Bell's model of local hidden variables. Equation 11 of his paper assumes one knows the values of the hidden variables, in this case Bartlmann's mood. So, P(L|bartlmann feels like wearing a pink sock on his right foot)=0 (since beyond his mood one also knows that he does not wear the same color socks) and P(R|bartlmann feels like wearing a pink sock on his right foot)=1. Thus P(L|mood=right, pink)*P(R|mood=right, pink)=1*0=0.

If instead one does not know his mood (or anything about it other than it can take on one of two sets of values), P(L)=P(L|RP)P(RP)+P(L|R¬P)P(R¬P)=0*0.5+1*0.5=0.5, by exchangeability. The problem Jaynes sees with Bell's reasoning is not his statistical or mathematical procedure/ability, rather he thinks Bell is to restrictive in what he (Bell) consideres to be valid variables for the probability distributions for a theory upholding local realism.
 
IsometricPion said:
[..]The problem Jaynes sees with Bell's reasoning is not his statistical or mathematical procedure/ability, rather he thinks Bell is to restrictive in what he (Bell) consideres to be valid variables for the probability distributions for a theory upholding local realism.
Thanks for the correction; however, although indeed Bell doesn't make a blunder of that proportion, Jaynes certainly points out a subtle error in Bell's equation; according to Jaynes it is not correct.
Anyway, we're not there yet: the problem with the illustration of Bertlmann's socks is that it by far doesn't catch the complexity of the problem at hand. If the observations would always be perfectly anti-correlated, there wouldn't be a riddle.

Now, I'm afraid that his next illustration of Lille and Lyon matches it even less well; thus, for this discussion I have been trying to come up with a variant of Bertlmann's socks that addresses the fact that the local conditions affect the observed correlation, but I didn't come up with a good looking one (I thought of observation of white or yellow socks in daylight/artificial light, as well as mud on his socks, but I'm not satisfied). Any better suggestion? If not, we should perhaps move on to the introduction of eq.11.
 
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  • #10
harrylin said:
Although I have participated in a number of discussions about Bell's theorem, I always had the uneasy feeling not to fully understand the definitions of symbols and the notation - in particular how to account for lambda in probability calculations.
Metaphors are unnecessary and sometimes confusing, imho. Why not just refer to Bell's original formulation of a local realistic QM expectation value. Where does lambda appear and what does it refer to?
 
  • #11
ThomasT said:
Metaphors are unnecessary and sometimes confusing, imho. Why not just refer to Bell's original formulation of a local realistic QM expectation value. Where does lambda appear and what does it refer to?
While it may appear that he defines it very precisely, different people interpret it slightly differently in the literature. Moreover, I wasn't in the clear about notation. However, this discussion is already making it quite clear (I just needed a memory refresh!); we're now moving on to Bell vs Jaynes.
 
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  • #12
harrylin said:
we're now moving on to Bell vs Jaynes.

I'm pretty much a spectator in these discussions, but I'd like to point out that there was a long thread here about three years ago, about Jaynes's objections to Bell:

https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=283519

This was before you joined PF, so you may not have seen this. It may or may not fit in with the direction you were planning to go.

It was split off from another thread, by the way, which is why it appears to start in the middle of a discussion.
 
  • #13
jtbell said:
I'm pretty much a spectator in these discussions, but I'd like to point out that there was a long thread here about three years ago, about Jaynes's objections to Bell:

https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=283519

This was before you joined PF, so you may not have seen this. It may or may not fit in with the direction you were planning to go.

It was split off from another thread, by the way, which is why it appears to start in the middle of a discussion.

Thank you! Indeed I had not seen that one... BTW I was also very much a spectator of another current thread in which I saw the suggestion to start this topic. Now I'll first check out the old thread. :smile:
 
  • #14
harrylin said:
Thank you! Indeed I had not seen that one... BTW I was also very much a spectator of another current thread in which I saw the suggestion to start this topic. Now I'll first check out the old thread. :smile:

Ok, I'm afraid that I will need some time to work through that old thread; and I'm very busy this week.

Still, I started reading it and I notice some disagreement about what Bell claimed to prove. There is no use getting into arguments about the meaning of "local realism" and philosophy. What the "local realist" Einstein insisted on, and what Bell claimed to be incompatible with QM, was "no spooky action at a distance". Or, as Bell put it in his first paper:
that the result of a measurement on one system be unaffected by operations on a distant system with which it has interacted in the past.
Those who deviate from that issue are shooting at straw men.

Bell puts it this way in his Bertlmann's socks paper:
What is held sacred is the principle of "local causality" - or "no action at a distance". [...] What [Einstein] could not accept was that an intervention at one place could influence, immediately, affairs at the other.

The focus of this discussion is Bell's attempt to prove that Einstein's "no action at a distance" principle is incompatible with QM, in the light of Jayne's first criticism.
 
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  • #15
jtbell said:
I'm pretty much a spectator in these discussions, but I'd like to point out that there was a long thread here about three years ago, about Jaynes's objections to Bell:

https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=283519

This was before you joined PF, so you may not have seen this. It may or may not fit in with the direction you were planning to go.

It was split off from another thread, by the way, which is why it appears to start in the middle of a discussion.

I now had a better look at it, and I think that in particular posts #26 and #31 are important. Anyway I'll give a short summary of how I now see it.

If Jaynes' criticism focuses on Bell's equation no.11 in his "socks" paper, it was perhaps due to a misunderstanding about what Bell meant (his comments were based on an earlier paper).

P(AB|a,b,x) = P(A|a,x) P(B|b,x) (Bel 11)

Here x stands for Bell's lambda, which corresponds to the circumstances that lead to a single pair correlation (in contrast to my earlier X, which causes the overall correlation for many pairs).

According to Jaynes it should be instead, for example:

P(AB|a,b,x) = P(A|B,a,b,x) P(B|a,b,x)

Perhaps Jaynes thought that Bell meant:

P(AB|a,b,X) = P(A|a,X) P(B|b,X)

in which case Jaynes claimed that:

P(AB|a,b,X) = P(A|B,a,b,X) P(B|a,b,X)

This is really tricky. :rolleyes:

However, he really was disagreeing with the integral equation.
According to him, it should not be:

P(AB|a,b) = ∫ P(A|a,x) P(B|b,x) p(x) dx

but:

P(AB|a,b) = ∫ P(AB|a,b,x) P(x|a,b) dx

and thus:

P(AB|a,b) = ∫ P(AB|a,b,x) p(x) dx = ∫ P(A|B,a,b,x) P(B|a,b,x) p(x) dx

Is my summary of the disagreement correct?

What is the significance of little p(x) instead of P(x)?
 
  • #16
harrylin said:
According to Jaynes it should be instead, for example:

P(AB|a,b,x) = P(A|B,a,b,x) P(B|a,b,x)

http://bayes.wustl.edu/etj/articles/cmystery.pdf

As I read it, this is one of Jaynes's arguments. However, I think it is attacking a straw man. The essence of Bell's argument does not require the factorization so much as a definition of what realism is.

For a SINGLE photon, not a pair: does it have a well-defined polarization at 0, 120, and 240 degrees independent of the act of observation? Once you answer this in the affirmative, as any local realist must, the Bell conclusion (a contradiction between the assumption and QM's predictions) follows quickly. If you answer as no, then you already deny local realism so it is moot.

So I really don't see the significance here of Jaynes' argument. The only people that take it seriously are local realists looking for support for their position. The vast majority of scientists see it for what it is, something of a technicality with no serious implications for the Theorem whatsoever.

In other words, it would be helpful to see an example that somehow related specifically to photon polarization rather than urns (which does not seem to be much of an analogy).
 
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  • #17
DrChinese said:
Speaking of this paper, does anyone know what Jaynes is talking about in the end of page 14 and going on to page 15, concerning "time-alternation theories"? He seems to be endorsing a local realist model which makes predictions contrary to QM, and he claims that experiments peformed by "H. Walther and coworkers on single atom masers are already showing some resemblance to the technology that would be required" to test such a theory. Does anyone one know whether such a test has been peformed in the decades since he wrote his paper?
 
  • #18
harrylin said:
Is my summary of the disagreement correct?

What is the significance of little p(x) instead of P(x)?
I think it is clear that λ in Bell's paper corresponds to x here (rather than X). While I am less certain of Jaynes' meaning I think it is probably x as well (since it appears on the left side of the | indicating that it is a variable in some of his equations). Jaynes is pretty consistent, so I would expect everything he denotes by λ to refer to the same thing (i.e., all his λ's should correspond with x's rather than X's).

Jaynes refers to probabilities essentially as logical statements of uncertain truth value. His P(y|Y) correspond to logical statements where Y is the predicate and y is the antecedent the truth value of which one is uncertain (the amount of (rational) belief one has that y has a value between u and v is P(u≤y≤v|Y)=∫uv P(y|Y)dy). He refers to any probability not of this form as p(y), since one cannot ascribe a logical statement to such a probability without more information regarding its context. Since the context here is clear and consistently applied, I think it is just a matter of formalism (i.e., there is no substantial difference). (Jaynes defines what he means by these symbols in Appendix B of Probability Theory: The Logic of Science.)

Jaynes states what he thinks are Bell's hidden assumptions:
Jaynes in Clearing Up Mysteries said:
(1)...Bell took it for granted that a conditional probability P(X Y) [sic P(X|Y)] expresses a physical causal influence, exerted by Y on X. ...

(2)The class of Bell theories does not include all local hidden variable theories...
He goes on to mention a type of local hidden variable theory he does not think Bell's theorm covers, though I do not yet understand his argument as to why it isn't covered.

I think a key point to this discussion is how to define local realism in terms of the functional dependence of probability distributions of outcomes of the EPR (thought) experiment. Once this is agreed upon (i.e., all the variables and symbols we are using are well-defined) the rest should just be a matter of mathematics (about which I think we all should be able to agree).
 
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  • #19
IsometricPion said:
He goes on to mention a type of local hidden variable theory he does not think Bell's theorm covers, though I do not yet understand his argument as to why it isn't covered.
Yes, that's what I was asking about in my previous post. He claims that ordinary Bell tests won't be able to test this "time-alternating" model, but some other experiments could test it.
 
  • #20
DrChinese said:

1. Urn example is a red herring. The cases are not equivalent. There is no correspondence established between A,B,a,b on one hand and R1,R2 on the other. Specifically, λ was lost along the way. Let's try to put it back.

λ is going to be the complete state of the urn before the first draw - that's our hidden random variable. A would be the location of the ball to be drawn first - a freely chosen parameter, mutually independent from λ. a=a(A,λ) is the outcome - deterministic function of A and λ. Now the state of the urn after the first draw is γ=γ(A,λ) - another deterministic function of A and λ. And finally b=b(B,γ) - is yet another deterministic function.

Now b=b(B,γ)=b(B,γ(A,λ))=b(A,B,λ), and b clearly depends on A, that is ∃A,B1,B2,λ: b(A,B1,λ) ≠ b(A,B2,λ). Here b(...) is a deterministic function and A,B1,B2,λ are merely placeholders, arguments of ∃, loop variables is you wish. There is a clear causal link: given the same initial state of the urn, the choice of ball in the first draw causally affects the results of the second draw.

In contrast, in Bell's case we have explicitly denied this causal link as violating locality: ∀A,B1,B2,λ: b(A,B1,λ) = b(A,B2,λ). Note we are not talking here about randomness, conditional probabilities, observer's state of knowledge etc., we are simply trying to establish a link between the value of a deterministic function and its parameter. See the difference?

So the two cases have different physical models behind them and it is not a surprise the results of one are not applicable to another. In fact, the urn would be a great example provided first and second draw can be spacelike separated :smile:

2. Regarding time-dependence. In Bell's case λ includes everything that might possibly affect the experiment, except for settings A and B. I think it is safe to assume that absolute value of t does not matter (otherwise we're in for a rough ride). Any relative time delay in the experiment will appear as yet another random factor collectively included in λ and the integral in (12) will include integration over the whole range of it. As long as these delays are independent from choices A and B, it's within Bell's framework.
 
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  • #21
Delta Kilo said:
1. Urn example is a red herring. The cases are not equivalent. There is no correspondence established between A,B,a,b on one hand and R1,R2 on the other. ...

Thanks for clarifying. I still have a hard time figuring out how the choice of measurement angle (for Alice and Bob) fits in. But you don't need to try to explain that point unless you want to.
 
  • #22
Delta Kilo said:
There is a clear causal link: given the same initial state of the urn, the choice of ball in the first draw causally affects the results of the second draw.

Yes, but that's not Jaynes' point. His point is that the choice of ball in the *second* draw cannot possibly causally affect the results of the *first* draw--yet logically, the two are not independent, so the probabilities don't factorize. (For example, if there is only one red ball in the urn, and we are told that a red ball was drawn on the second draw, the probability of drawing a red ball on the first draw given that data is zero.)
 
  • #23
PeterDonis said:
Yes, but that's not Jaynes' point. His point is that the choice of ball in the *second* draw cannot possibly causally affect the results of the *first* draw--yet logically, the two are not independent, so the probabilities don't factorize. (For example, if there is only one red ball in the urn, and we are told that a red ball was drawn on the second draw, the probability of drawing a red ball on the first draw given that data is zero.)

I get that the Jaynes' critique has to do with the factorizing that Bell pushed, but really how does that change the Bell result in any way?

If you assume realism (simultaneous existence of particle attributes independent of the act of observation) AND locality (that the results of Alice and Bob's observations are causally independent): you easily get the Bell result a number of ways. What does factorizing have to do with this? To me, the factorizing was just a way to express the locality assumption, but certainly not central to the argument.

Although I hardly see how Jaynes' point even applies, the urn example seems so contrived.
 
  • #24
DrChinese said:
I get that the Jaynes' critique has to do with the factorizing that Bell pushed, but really how does that change the Bell result in any way?

If you assume realism (simultaneous existence of particle attributes independent of the act of observation) AND locality (that the results of Alice and Bob's observations are causally independent): you easily get the Bell result a number of ways. What does factorizing have to do with this? To me, the factorizing was just a way to express the locality assumption, but certainly not central to the argument.

I thought that having the probabilities for the two measurements factorize was a crucial step in deriving the Bell Inequalities; without the factorization the inequalities can't be derived.

DrChinese said:
Although I hardly see how Jaynes' point even applies, the urn example seems so contrived.

He was just using it as a simple example, easy to visualize, where A is causally independent of B but the joint probability of A and B doesn't factorize into separate probabilities for A and B. (I realize I'm speaking loosely, if I need to tighten it up I'll do so.)
 
  • #25
PeterDonis said:
Yes, but that's not Jaynes' point. His point is that the choice of ball in the *second* draw cannot possibly causally affect the results of the *first* draw--yet logically, the two are not independent, so the probabilities don't factorize.

Bell stipulates that conditional probability of outcome a is independent from free parameter B. Jaynes says conditional probability of one outcome R1 is not independent from another outcome R2. See the difference? If we are talking about outcomes, then of course outcomes a and b are not independent in Bell's case, but it is not the point.

In Bell''s case outcome a and experiment parameters A,B are connected (or not connected as the case might be) through deterministic function a(A,λ). If we try to introduce similar notion in Jayne's case, we'll see the function behaves differently, describing different physical model.
 
  • #26
Delta Kilo said:
Bell stipulates that conditional probability of outcome a is independent from free parameter B. Jaynes says conditional probability of one outcome R1 is not independent from another outcome R2. See the difference?

I see the distinction you are making, but I'm not sure you are capturing Jaynes' claim correctly. The "factorization" I am referring to is this:

P(AB|abx) = P(A|ax) P(B|bx)

where a, b are the free parameters (the settings of the two measuring devices in the EPR case; the parameters that determine which ball is picked out of the urn in the urn case); A, B are the outcomes (spin up/down in the given direction in the EPR case; color of ball picked in the urn case), and x represents the hidden variables (and any other prior information which does not vary between the two measurements).

In other words, the factorization claim is a claim about *both* of the things you refer to: it says each measurement outcome is independent of *both* the other outcome *and* the other set of free parameters. Jaynes is basically arguing that *both* of those claims of independence could in principle be false even in a case of causal independence.

The only question I can see is whether the equation I wrote above (which is pretty much the one in Jaynes' paper) correctly captures the corresponding part of Bell's paper. I'll have to dig up my copy of Speakable & Unspeakable in Quantum Mechanics to review Bell's paper to verify that.
 
  • #27
I'm now way behind - hope to catch up with the discussion here some time tomorrow!

@DrChinese:
The act of observation affects what is observed: that is a central point of QM and EPR certainly could accept that. Thus, while Jaynes may be attacking a straw man, I'm sure that you do and it distracts from the discussion here. As a reminder of my post #14: The discussion of this thread is about the first equations of Bell's derivation which claims to prove that the following opinion is incompatible with QM (and I now omit a sound bite that apparently bugs you):

"What is held sacred is the principle of [..]"no action at a distance". [..] What [Einstein] could not accept was that an intervention at one place could influence, immediately, affairs at the other".

I agree with you that Jayne's urn example isn't a very good one. However, I also don't appreciate much Bell's example of Lyon and Lille, as it doesn't "catch" the freely chosen detector settings well; and to go to polarisation would defeat the purpose of Bell's attempt. He had been there, it is where he came from - before he motivated his mathematical operations with his example of Lyons and Lille.

@IsometricPion:
Thanks for the clarification of p vs P and the link! :smile:

@Delta Kilo: Yes, we agree that the urn isn't a very good example. And neither do I think that Lyon and Lille is a very good example.
But I now have an idea of a better variant of Bertlmann's socks - and I really don't know if it will support Jaynes (which would defeat Bell), or if it will support Bell (which would not exactly defeat jaynes, but ...).
That will have to wait for tomorrow, or Monday.
 
  • #28
PeterDonis said:
The "factorization" I am referring to is this:

P(AB|abx) = P(A|ax) P(B|bx)

where a, b are the free parameters (the settings of the two measuring devices in the EPR case; the parameters that determine which ball is picked out of the urn in the urn case); A, B are the outcomes (spin up/down in the given direction in the EPR case; color of ball picked in the urn case), and x represents the hidden variables (and any other prior information which does not vary between the two measurements).

Where did you get this equation from? Please point me to this or similar equation in the original Bell's paper. Hint: there isn't one, in fact there is no product of two probabilities anywhere in Bell's paper.

The closest equation in Bell's paper would be equation (2) or (19):
P(\vec{a},\vec{b})=\int{d\lambda \rho(\lambda)A(\vec{a},\lambda),B(\vec{b},\lambda)}
Let's play "spot the difference":
1. A and B are deterministic functions of deterministic parameters (λ here being variable of integration rather than random variable).
2. There is only one probability on the right side, ρ(λ), and it is not conditional.
3. The whole thing is under the integral.
In other words it is a completely different equation.
 
  • #29
Delta Kilo said:
Where did you get this equation from?

I got it from Jaynes' paper, equation (14). (I was lazy and didn't use LaTeX, so I wrote "x" instead of lambda. I'll quit doing that here.) I did say in my post that I still wanted to check to see what the corresponding equations in Bell's paper looked like. Now that you have linked to Bell's paper, let's play "spot the correspondence".

You are right that the equation I gave, equation (14) in Jaynes' paper, doesn't really have a corresponding equation in Bell's paper. But Jaynes' equation (14) is not the only equation in his paper that bears on the "factorization" issue. In fact, Jaynes' (14) is really just a "sub-expression" from his equation (12), which looks like this:

P(AB|ab) = \int{P(A|a, \lambda) P(B|b, \lambda) p(\lambda) d\lambda}

This equation is basically the same as the equation you gave from Bell's paper. Bell's equation is for the expectation value of a given pair of results that are determined by a given pair of measurement settings; Jaynes' equation is for the joint probability of a given pair of results conditional on a given pair of measurement settings. They basically say the same thing.

Jaynes' point is that to arrive at his equation in the first place, Bell has to make an assumption: he has to *assume* that the integrand can be expressed in the factored form given above. In other words, the integrand Bell writes down is not the most general one possible for the given expectation value: that would be (using Bell's notation)

P(a, b) = \int{A(B, a, b, \lambda) B(a, b, \lambda) p(\lambda) d\lambda}

The question then is whether one accepts Bell's implicit reasoning (he doesn't really go into it much; he seems to think it's obvious) to justify streamlining the integrand as he does. Jaynes does not accept that reasoning, and he gives the urn scenario as an example of why not. I agree that there is one key difference in the urn scenario: the two "measurement events" are not spacelike separated. Jaynes doesn't talk about that at all.

Edit: Bell's notation is actually a bit obscure. He says that A, B stand for "results", but he actually writes them as *functions* of the measurement settings a, b and the hidden variables \lambda. He doesn't seem to have a notation for the actual *outcomes* (the values of the functions given specific values for the variables). I've used A, B above to denote the outcomes as well as the functions, since Bell's notation doesn't give any other way to do it. In Jaynes' notation things are clearer; the equivalent to the above would be:

P(AB|ab) = \int{P(A|B, a, b, \lambda) P(B|a, b, \lambda) p(\lambda) d\lambda}

Edit #2: Corrected the equations above (previously I had A in the second factor in each integrand, which is incorrect). Also, Jaynes notes that there are two possible factorizations; the full way to write the equation just above would be:

P(AB|ab) = \int{P(A|B, a, b, \lambda) P(B|a, b, \lambda) p(\lambda) d\lambda} = \int{P(B|A, a, b, \lambda) P(A|a, b, \lambda) p(\lambda) d\lambda}

This is basically Jaynes' equation (15) with \lambda integrated out.
 
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  • #30
Delta Kilo said:
Where did you get this equation from? [..]
As I discussed in post #15, it happens to be Bell's equation no.11 in his Bertlmann's socks paper, http://cdsweb.cern.ch/record/142461. I use this later paper as the basis for the discussion of this topic, because it is more elaborate and Bell explains things better.
 
  • #31
harrylin said:
As I discussed in post #15, it happens to be Bell's equation no.11 in his Bertlmann's socks paper, http://cdsweb.cern.ch/record/142461. I use this later paper as the basis for the discussion of this topic, because it is more elaborate and Bell explains things better.

I agree, this paper is a much better basis for discussion. It appears that what Bell wrote as P(a, b) in the earlier paper (the "expectation value"), he writes as E(a, b) in this one (equation 13).
 
  • #32
Suppose a and λ are sufficient to determine A, while b and λ are sufficient to determine B. I assert this to be true due to the spacelike separation between events A and B (and the fact that the theories under consideration exhibit local realism). Therefore, P(A|B,a,b,λ)=P(A|a,λ) similarly P(B|A,a,b,λ)=P(B|b,λ). This is not to say that there is no correlation between A and B, but any such correlation must occur through λ since it is the only shared part of the conditions sufficient to determine each outcome. Using logic symbols: B→(b^λ) and A→(a^λ), therefore B^b^λ→B^B→B→b^λ similarly A^a^λ→a^λ. So, given this interpretation of local realism (which seems to be consistent with that expressed in Bell's paper) P(AB|a,b,λ)=P(A|B,a,b,λ)P(B|a,b,λ)=P(B|A,a,b,λ)P(A|a,b,λ)=P(A|a,λ)P(B|b,λ).
 
  • #33
IsometricPion said:
Suppose a and λ are sufficient to determine A, while b and λ are sufficient to determine B. I assert this to be true due to the spacelike separation between events A and B (and the fact that the theories under consideration exhibit local realism).

Yes, agreed, *if* Bell's interpretation of local realism is correct, then any local realistic theory will lead to probabilities that "factorize" in the way you've written them down.

IsometricPion said:
This is not to say that there is no correlation between A and B, but any such correlation must occur through λ since it is the only shared part of the conditions sufficient to determine each outcome.

*If* Bell's version of local realism applies, yes. As I read Jaynes, he is questioning whether Bell's definition of "local realism" is the correct one. Of course, if one is willing to give up either locality or realism if that's what it takes to make sense of the actual QM predictions, Jaynes' question is kind of a moot point.
 
  • #34
PeterDonis said:
*If* Bell's version of local realism applies, yes. As I read Jaynes, he is questioning whether Bell's definition of "local realism" is the correct one. Of course, if one is willing to give up either locality or realism if that's what it takes to make sense of the actual QM predictions, Jaynes' question is kind of a moot point.
How can you have a correlation between A and B that does not just occur through λ, and still call a theory local realistic?
 
  • #35
lugita15 said:
How can you have a correlation between A and B that does not just occur through λ, and still call a theory local realistic?

A good question, to which I don't have a ready answer. Neither did Jaynes, for that matter. But pointing out that nobody has (yet) thought of a way to answer this question is not the same as *proving* that local realism *requires* the correlations to work the way Bell assumed they did. Bell didn't prove this; he just assumed it. The assumption certainly looks reasonable; it may even be true. But that's not the same as proving it true.

Another point that Jaynes makes is worth mentioning. We don't even understand why quantum measurements work the way they do for spin measurements on *single* particles. I take a stream of electrons all of which have come from the "up" beam of a Stern-Gerlach measuring device. I put them all through a second Stern-Gerlach device oriented left-right. As far as I can tell, all the electrons in the beam are the same going into the second device, yet they split into two beams coming out. Why? What is it that makes half the "up" electrons go left and half go right? Nobody knows.

One response to this, which has been the standard response in QM, is to redefine what counts as a physical explanation. Physics no longer has to explain why particular events happen in particular ways; in QM, it's now sufficient to explain probabilities over ensembles of "similar" events, without even pretending to explain why the individual events themselves turn out the way they do.

Another response, which is Jaynes' response, is to say that our physical knowledge is simply insufficient at this point, and what we ought to be doing, rather than lowering our standards of explanation, is to look harder for underlying mechanisms. Such a search may not yield any results; but Jaynes' claim is basically that since QM was adopted physicists haven't really been trying very hard. Perhaps if we looked harder, we would figure out an underlying mechanism that explained why half the "up" electrons go left and half go right; and once we had that mechanism, we might find that it also explained the EPR correlations in a way that showed how local realism can be true even if the probabilities don't factorize.

I'm not saying Jaynes' response is necessarily right; but it doesn't seem to me that it can just be rejected out of hand either.
 
  • #36
PeterDonis said:
*If* Bell's version of local realism applies, yes. As I read Jaynes, he is questioning whether Bell's definition of "local realism" is the correct one. Of course, if one is willing to give up either locality or realism if that's what it takes to make sense of the actual QM predictions, Jaynes' question is kind of a moot point.

It is safe to say that Bell used a definition of realism that Einstein would have appreciated. Specifically, Einstein stated that there IS a reality independent of the act of observation. In addition, EPR defines something called elements of reality and clearly Bell was trying to model that. And nicely he did!

So I would happily say that Jaynes and others may have different definitions of realism, and under their definitions, local realism is quite possibly not ruled out.
 
  • #37
PeterDonis said:
A good question, to which I don't have a ready answer. Neither did Jaynes, for that matter. But pointing out that nobody has (yet) thought of a way to answer this question is not the same as *proving* that local realism *requires* the correlations to work the way Bell assumed they did. Bell didn't prove this; he just assumed it. The assumption certainly looks reasonable; it may even be true. But that's not the same as proving it true.
I think you misunderstood me. I was asking a rhetorical question. Clearly, if the correlation depends on something other than local variables, it is definitionally not a local theory, end of story. That was the point I was trying to make.
 
  • #38
DrChinese said:
In addition, EPR defines something called elements of reality and clearly Bell was trying to model that. And nicely he did!

I agree, Bell did a good job of capturing what EPR were getting at.
 
  • #39
PeterDonis said:
I'm not saying Jaynes' response is necessarily right; but it doesn't seem to me that it can just be rejected out of hand either.

If Bell's is wrong (which can be stated many different ways, and has already in this thread: What is a better definition of realism?

If p(x,y,z)>=0 for any x, y, z doesn't work, I think we have a bigger problem. I keep asking this, and so far, not a single local realist will give me a satisfactory *alternative* definition. All the while rejecting Bell's. And Einstein's!
 
  • #40
lugita15 said:
I think you misunderstood me. I was asking a rhetorical question. Clearly, if the correlation depends on something other than local variables, it is definitionally not a local theory, end of story. That was the point I was trying to make.

It's not that simple. First of all, remember that Jaynes views probabilities as expressing our knowledge about reality, not reality itself. When he writes conditional probabilities that condition on "other than local variables", he's not saying there's any "action at a distance" that occurs physically; he's merely saying that, *logically*, knowledge of those "other than local variables" can in principle change your posterior probability estimates.

Second, however, Jaynes hiimself points out that, actually, the probabilities P(A|ab\lambda) and P(B|ab\lambda) (i.e., the ones that apparently depend on *both* sets of measurement settings, but *not* on either measurement result--each of these appears as one of two factors in the two versions of the "factorized" equation that I took from Jaynes' equation 15) can actually be simplified, because it's easy to show that knowledge only of the *direction* of the "a" measurement, for example, gives no additional information about the probabilities of possible results of the "b" measurement. So the two conditional probabilities above can actually be simplified to P(A|a\lambda) and P(B|b\lambda)--meaning that the probabilities that condition only on the measurement settings (not on the results) *are* "local" in the sense you are using the term.

The additional information that *does* change the posterior probabilities is knowledge of the *results* of the measurements, A and B. But the observer at the "a" measurement doesn't know the result of the "b" measurement until it reaches him via a light signal, and vice versa. So the actual correlations that are observed could, in principle, be explained entirely by information traveling at light speed or less; there is nothing in the probability functions themselves, once simplified as above, that rules that out.
 
  • #41
DrChinese said:
If p(x,y,z)>=0 for any x, y, z doesn't work, I think we have a bigger problem.

I'm not sure what you're driving at. Do you see something in a viewpoint like Jaynes' that appears to violate this condition?
 
  • #42
DrChinese said:
What is a better definition of realism?

I wasn't questioning Bell's definition of "realism", only of "local realism", and only the "local" part.

As far as alternative definitions, I don't have any ready-packaged one, but I do have an observation: in Quantum Field Theory, the definition of "causality" is that field operators have to commute at spacelike separations. There is nothing in there about lack of correlations or what variables correlations can depend on; the only requirement is that, if two measurements are spacelike separated, the results can't depend on which one occurs first. The QM probabilities in EPR experiments certainly meet that requirement. Would something along these lines count as an alternative definition of "local realism"?
 
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  • #43
PeterDonis said:
I wasn't questioning Bell's definition of "realism", only of "local realism", and only the "local" part.
PeterDonis said:
There is nothing in there about lack of correlations or what variables correlations can depend on; the only requirement is that, if two measurements are spacelike separated, the results can't depend on which one occurs first.
I assumed local meant that each outcome was only a function of properties at the measuring device (i.e., the settings of the device and the values of any hidden variables evaluated at that event in space-time). Note that without the sufficiency gauranteed by realism one cannot factor the joint probability as I did above (the last equality in the last line is no longer valid in general).

I assumed realism to mean that a thing's state exists independent of measurement. I took this to imply that the measurement is determined completely by the other properties in the system (i.e., A=A(B,a,b,λ); B=B(A,a,b,λ) and since this must hold for the states of both objects, A=A(a,b,λ); B=B(a,b,λ)).

I made no reference to correlations anywhere except when calculating the joint probability at the end. Do you mean (in "questioning... only the 'local' part") that the analysis is no longer local when one is examining correlations between events separated by a spacelike interval? If so, I would say that locality does not apply to analyses, only to interactions between things modeled by the theory in question (though I could be wrong). As an aside, Wikipedia- Principle of locality indicates that QFT obeys locality.
 
  • #44
IsometricPion said:
As an aside, Wikipedia- Principle of locality indicates that QFT obeys locality.
I've always felt the whole debate about whether quantum mechanics is local to be largely semantics. To my mind, entanglement makes it rather clear that quantum mechanics is nonlocal, but of course many people have the positon that entanglement means that QM possesses "quantum nonlocality" (spooky action at a distance), to be distinguished from "classical nonlocality".
 
  • #45
PeterDonis said:
Jaynes' point is that to arrive at his equation in the first place, Bell has to make an assumption: he has to *assume* that the integrand can be expressed in the factored form given above.

Yes, this is exactly the assumption of local realism: the outcome P(A|a,λ) does not depend on the choice of parameter b and vice versa. Let's see how Bell explains it:
Bell said:
It seems reasonable to expect that if sufficiently many such causal factors can be identified and held fixed, the residual fluctuations will be independent, i.e.,
P(N,M|a,b,λ)=P1(M|a,λ)P2(N|b,λ) (10)
(eq (10) is the same as Bell's eq(11) and Jayne's eq (14) except M and N are renamed to A and B)

The factorization in eq. (10) means P1(...) and P2(...) are independent. Now the reason they are independent is because Bell chose it to be that way, by encapsulating all common factors in parameter λ. The underlying assumption here is that the values M and N are affected by some common factors (represented by λ), local factors a and b, and some residual randomness, independent of either global or local influences. This residual randomness is the reason we have probabilities P1, P2 at all, without it we would have
deterministic functions M(a,λ) and N(b,λ).

Eq (10) is valid for any given a,b,λ. Say, we discovered that the number of cases in both Lyons and Lille is influenced by day of week, so we are only comparing the results on a given day (say on Friday). Then we discovered a correlation with the stock market, so we only compare the results from only those Fridays when stock market was bearish. etc. And we keep doing that that until the residual randomness is independent.

I repeat, P1 and P2 are independent by design. If they turn out not to be independent, it just means we didn't do a good enough job with λ and overlooked some common factor. There is no limit on what λ can contain, except for local factors a and b, in accordance with physical model of local realism.

Now, there is an easy way to get rid of the residual randomness, by lumping it into λ. We can introduce random variables χ and η representing residual randomness of M and N. In case of Lyons and Lille they would represent the health of the population, their susceptibility to heart attack, including random fluctuations. χ(a,λ) might be a random function which tells whether a person in Lyons is going to have a heart attack given local and global factors a and λ. M and M then become deterministic functions M=M(χ,a,λ), N=N(η,b,λ), probabilities P1(M|χ,a,λ) and P2(N|η,b,λ) become {0,1} and eq (10) is automatically satisfied. Then we just redefine λ to include χ,η: λ' = {λ,χ,η}. It does expand the meaning of λ, which now means not just common global factors but any factors at all whether local or global, but excluding a and b. This is basically what was done from the outset in eq (2) in Bell's EPR paper.

Jaynes says that the fundamentally correct equation is
P(AB|abλ) = P(A|Babλ) P(B|abλ) (15)
Well, where did that come from? It's just the axiom of conditional probability P(AB) = P(A|B) P(B) with abλ tucked in. It is of course trivially true, but the locality assumptions and the special role of λ have been thrown out with the bathwater. Basically, while (14) is a physical model of a particular EPR setup with added local realism assumption, (15) is a tautology in a form 2*2*x = 4*x which tells us absolutely nothing.

Now, let's talk about 1st of the two objections:
Jaynes said:
(1) As his words above show, Bell took it for granted that a conditional probability P(X|Y ) expresses a physical causal influence, exerted by Y on X.
I assume Jaynes refers here to the following quite:
It would be very remarkable if b proved to be a causal factor for A, or a for B; i.e., if P(A|aλ) depended on b or P(B|bλ) depended on a.
Note the subtle difference: Jaynes talks about causal dependence of one outcome random variable on another random variable, while Bell talks about dependence of random variable on free parameter. The difference is, with two random variables they may be dependent and you cannot say whether X causes Y, Y causes X or both X and Y are caused by some third factor. In Bell's case of random variable and free parameter, dependency is clearly one way: the outcome depends on the parameter but not the other way around. The parameter is a given, it does not depend on anything else. This is actually one assumption which is implied and not stated directly. Violation of this assumption represents superdeterminism loophole, which is currently being discussed in another [STRIKE]ward[/STRIKE]thread.

As an illustration of his point, Jaynes gives Bernoulli Urn example. Let's start with eq (16):
P(R1|I)=M/N
I'd say I was introduced here to mimic Bell's λ. But what is the meaning of I exactly?
Jaynes said:
I = "Our urn contains N balls, identical in every respect except that M of them are red, the remaining N-M white. We have no information about the location of particular balls in the urn. They are drawn out blindfolded without replacement."
So I is not a random variable, nor a parameter. It does not have a set of values you can integrate over. It never changes. Basically it does absolutely nothing. Also note conspicuous absence of local parameter a or its equivalent. And without a, the whole thing misses the point.

Now if we are to re-introduce a and λ according to Bell's recipe, we would define a as a free local parameter which applies to the first measurement only. Say, a is a location of the ball to be picked during the first draw. Correspondingly b is the location of the ball to be picked on the second draw. λ is a random variable which by definition includes everything else which might possibly affect the outcomes. In this case λ would be exact arrangement of the balls in the urn. Clearly λ and a together completely determine which ball is drawn first: R1 = R1(a,λ). State of the urn after the first draw is γ=γ(a,λ) and second ball R2=R2(b,γ)=R2(a,b,λ). Note that expression for R2 violates Bell locality assumption and so the whole setup is clearly different from Bell's. Anyway, R1 and R2 are fully determined by a, b, and λ and therefore do not depend on anything else:
P(R1|R2abλ)=P(R1|aλ)={1: R1=R1(a,λ), 0: otherwise}
P(R2|R1abλ)=P(R2|abλ)={1: R2=R2(a,b,λ), 0: otherwise}.
Easy to see that factorization P(R1 R2|a,b,λ)= P(R1|aλ)P(R2|abλ) is in fact correct.

R1=R1(a,λ) and R2=R2(a,b,λ) above are deterministic functions, like in EPR paper. We could add some local residual randomness to them to get the equation similar to eq. (10) from Berltmann's Socks paper. For example, a and b would select x-coordinate of the ball to be drawn and y-coordinate would be picked at random. As long as random functions R1 and R2 are independent, the factorization will be valid. Again, this randomness can always be moved from R1 and R2 into λ.

So what is missing in Jaynes paper? Well, the elephant in the room of course, I mean the λ. λ is a key feature of Bell's paper and it is completely absent in Jaynes example. λ by definition encapsulates all randomness and all parameters in the system, except a and b. Once particular values of λ,a,b are fixed, everything else is predetermined. Without λ, the best posteriori estimate of conditional probability P(R1|...) would necessarily include dependency on R2 and vice versa. Once we nail down λ,a,b, all other dependencies disappear.
 
  • #46
PeterDonis said:
The additional information that *does* change the posterior probabilities is knowledge of the *results* of the measurements, A and B.
No it does not. The results A and B are already fully defined by a,b, and λ.
 
  • #47
Delta Kilo said:
No it does not. The results A and B are already fully defined by a,b, and λ.

I didn't say that knowledge of the results changes the results. I said that knowledge of one result changes the *posterior probability* that you would compute for the other result.
 
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  • #48
PeterDonis said:
I wasn't questioning Bell's definition of "realism", only of "local realism", and only the "local" part.

As far as alternative definitions, I don't have any ready-packaged one, but I do have an observation: in Quantum Field Theory, the definition of "causality" is that field operators have to commute at spacelike separations. There is nothing in there about lack of correlations or what variables correlations can depend on; the only requirement is that, if two measurements are spacelike separated, the results can't depend on which one occurs first. The QM probabilities in EPR experiments certainly meet that requirement. Would something along these lines count as an alternative definition of "local realism"?

Here is my point. Start with ONE photon, not 2. Apply realism to that. That means that there is a well defined value for the result of a polarization measurement at 0, 120 and 240 degrees. So this means that p(0=H,120=H,240=H) or any permutation is >=0. Do you agree with this? If so, yours and mine and Bell's definitions are alike. The problem Bell found starts here. You can see that when you try to put down values for what they would be for any reasonable sample - it won't agree with Malus (and I do mean Malus here).

So what I am saying is that once you set up the realistic scenario you are looking to test, you add an entangled (essentially cloned) photon into help accomplish that. When that photon is tested remotely to the first, you are also require the assumption of observational locality - a setting here does not affect an outcome there, and vice versa. How can a local realist object to this?

So if Jaynes were to agree with this definition of realism, I really don't see what his objection would be to Bell. Again, I am not trying to derail the conversation so much as understand it. If Jaynes is picking on a detail of what Bell wrote, but which has since been readily clarified by hundreds of writers, I just miss the issue entirely.
 
  • #49
PeterDonis said:
... As I read Jaynes, he is questioning whether Bell's definition of "local realism" is the correct one. Of course, if one is willing to give up either locality or realism if that's what it takes to make sense of the actual QM predictions, Jaynes' question is kind of a moot point.

This helps. Thanks.
 
  • #50
PeterDonis said:
I didn't say that knowledge of the results changes the results. I said that knowledge of one result changes the *posterior probability* that you would compute for the other result.

It does it if you don't know λ: P(A|Bab) ≠ P(A|ab)
But for a given a,b,λ it doesn't. P(A|Babλ) = P(A|aλ) = { 1: A=A(a,λ), else 0 }

And that is the crux of the argument. λ is what makes Bell's factorization possible but Jaynes completely ignores it in his paper.
 
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