Algebraic and normal field extensions.

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Homework Statement



Let K be an algebraic field extension of a field F, and let L be a subfield of K such that F \subseteq L and L is normal in F. Show that if \sigma is an automorphism of K over F, then \sigma(L)=L.

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The Attempt at a Solution



I've been thinking about this for a while, but I couldn't really prove anything. So I'm just looking for a hint that will help me get started...
 
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What is your definition of a normal extension?
 
micromass said:
What is your definition of a normal extension?

If f \in F[x] has one root in L, then it splits over L.
 
Take an element ##a\in L##. Use that ##K## is algebraic to find a polynomial ##f\in F[x]## such that ##f(a)=0##. What can you tell about ##f(\sigma(a))##?
 
micromass said:
Take an element ##a\in L##. Use that ##K## is algebraic to find a polynomial ##f\in F[x]## such that ##f(a)=0##. What can you tell about ##f(\sigma(a))##?

I'm guessing that I can assume that ##\sigma## fixes ##F## since it says "##\sigma## is an automorphism of ##K## over ##F##". If that's true, then

##f(a)=b_0 + b_1a + b_2a^2 + ... + b_na^n = 0##

So,

##f(\sigma(a))= b_0 + b_1\sigma(a) + ... + b_n\sigma(a) = \sigma(b_0+b_1a+...+b_na^n)= \sigma(0)=0.##

So ##\sigma(a)## must be a root of ##f##. But since #L# is normal, it must contain all the other roots of ##f##. So, basically, ##\sigma## just permutes the roots of a given polynomial over ##F## with roots in ##L##, meaning that ##\sigma(L)=L##. Is that correct?
 
Artusartos said:
I'm guessing that I can assume that ##\sigma## fixes ##F## since it says "##\sigma## is an automorphism of ##K## over ##F##". If that's true, then

#f(a)=b_0 + b_1a + b_2a^2 + ... + b_na^n = 0#

So,

#f(\sigma(a))= b_0 + b_1\sigma(a) + ... + b_n\sigma(a) = \sigma(b_0+b_1a+...+b_na^n)= \sigma(0)=0.#

So #\sigma(a)# must be a root of #f#. But since #L# is normal, it must contain all the other roots of #f#. So, basically, #\sigma# just permutes the roots of a given polynomial over #F# with roots in #L#, meaning that #\sigma(L)=L#. Is that correct?

Yes, that's what I had in mind.
 
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There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...

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