Tom83B
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I'm sorry if I put this question to the wrong question. But I have problems to understand why is the angular acceleration [omega]^2/time.
I know that I get it when I do the derivation, but it kinda seems that if the angular acceleration is eg. 4rad/s^2, that in the time 1s the angular velocity not 4rad/s but 2rad/s. I still can't see why...
I know that I get it when I do the derivation, but it kinda seems that if the angular acceleration is eg. 4rad/s^2, that in the time 1s the angular velocity not 4rad/s but 2rad/s. I still can't see why...