Angular Momentum Operator Eigenfunction

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around determining if the wave function proportional to x² + y² is an eigenfunction of the angular momentum operator Lz and calculating its eigenvalue. The calculations show that applying Lz to the function results in zero, suggesting that the eigenvalue λ could be zero. However, a participant suggests using spherical coordinates to simplify the problem, indicating that expressing x and y in terms of r and θ may reveal additional insights. The conversation emphasizes that zero is a valid eigenvalue, but hints at a more elegant solution through coordinate transformation. The discussion concludes with an acknowledgment of the need for alternative approaches in solving the problem.
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Homework Statement


Let the angular part of a wave function be proportional to x2+y2

Show that the wave function is an eigenfunction of Lz and calculate the associated
eigenvalue.


Homework Equations



Lz = xpy-ypx

px = -i\hbar\frac{\partial}{\partialx}

py = -i\hbar\frac{\partial}{\partialy}


The Attempt at a Solution



Lz (x2+y2) = (\lambdax2+y2) (1)

(xpy-ypx)(x2+y2) = (\lambdax2+y2) (2)

= xpy(x2+y2) - ypx(x2+y2) (3)

= xpy(x2) + xpy(y2) - ypx(x2) - ypx(y2) (4)

= 0 - 2i\hbarxy + 2i\hbarxy + 0 (5)

= 0 (6)

Which can only be correct if \lambda = 0 (?). (7)

Is \lambda = 0 a valid solution?

I'm pretty confident that (1), (2) and (3) are correct but after that I feel as if I'm missing some kind of 'trick'.
 
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It looks fine. Zero is a perfectly good eigenvalue. Yours is a "brute force" solution. The "trick" that you may have missed is to express x and y in spherical coordinates, so that

x2+y2=r2sin2θ and then operate on it with

L_{z}=\frac{\hbar}{i}\frac{\partial}{\partial \phi}
 
Thanks for the quick reply!
 
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