- #1
JasonWuzHear
- 20
- 2
1. Is there any reason to interpret the wave function as probabilities of specific states rather than an actual interference of those states? Or are there some types of measurements that are better thought of as probabilities? For example, thinking of the particle as a point-like object with the probability to be in a location x versus the particle 'smeared' out with the strength/weight associated at x. Is there a real difference between those two?
2. At the moment, my concept of particles now are discrete-matter-wave-interference things. I don't really understand why all particles are the same, or how it's possible for things to be discrete other than 'they just are'. Is there a good reason that explains why all electrons must have the same rest mass or charge? I know asking 'why' is pretty dangerous, but I mean it in the most lenient way.
3. In my course, there's only been a couple examples of wavefunctions, and all of them still have some probabilities at distances much larger than uncertainty of x, albeit very very small probabilities. Does this mean the particle is technically everywhere at once? If a particle's wavefunction can interfere with another particle's wavefunction, can they interfere at very large distances instantly? Is physics only kind of local?
Thanks for reading and possibly helping out. I'd ask my professor after next class, but I'm feeling impatient and can't stop thinking about this stuff.
2. At the moment, my concept of particles now are discrete-matter-wave-interference things. I don't really understand why all particles are the same, or how it's possible for things to be discrete other than 'they just are'. Is there a good reason that explains why all electrons must have the same rest mass or charge? I know asking 'why' is pretty dangerous, but I mean it in the most lenient way.
3. In my course, there's only been a couple examples of wavefunctions, and all of them still have some probabilities at distances much larger than uncertainty of x, albeit very very small probabilities. Does this mean the particle is technically everywhere at once? If a particle's wavefunction can interfere with another particle's wavefunction, can they interfere at very large distances instantly? Is physics only kind of local?
Thanks for reading and possibly helping out. I'd ask my professor after next class, but I'm feeling impatient and can't stop thinking about this stuff.