Calculating Electric Field Due to Multiple Charged Balls

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on calculating the electric field at the location of a charged ball (Q1) due to another charged ball (Q2). The user initially applies Coulomb's law incorrectly, mixing up the formulas for electric field and force. Clarifications reveal that the electric field should be calculated using the formula E = kQ2/r^2, where k is Coulomb's constant. The user expresses confusion about the absence of k in their calculations and receives guidance on the correct application of the electric field formula. The conversation emphasizes the distinction between electric field and force calculations in electrostatics.
cowmoo32
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Homework Statement


13-46.jpg

At a particular moment, three small charged balls, one negative and two positive,are located as shown in Figure 13.46. Q1 = 3 nC, Q2 = 7 nC, and Q3 = -6 nC.

What is the electric field at the location of Q1, due to Q2?


Homework Equations


\vec E = q1q2\hat{r} / 4\pi\varepsilon r^2


The Attempt at a Solution



r = <0, .04, 0> m
rmag = .04
rhat = <0, 1, 0>

E = [3e-9(7e-9)(9e9)] / .0016

Which gives me:

E = <0, 1.18125e-4, 0>

What am I doing wrong here? At first I figured I missed a negative, so I tried making my answer negative, but apparently that's not the case.
 
Last edited:
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cowmoo32 said:
\vec E = q1q2\hat{r} / 4\pi\varepsilon r^2


The Attempt at a Solution



r = <0, .04, 0> m
rmag = .04
rhat = <0, 1, 0>

E = [3e-9(7e-9)(9e9)] / .0016

Which gives me:

E = <0, 1.18125e-4, 0>

What am I doing wrong here? At first I figured I missed a negative, so I tried making my answer negative, but apparently that's not the case.

Isn't the electric field at Q1 due to Q2 given by
E = kQ/r2 = kQ2/(.04)2 ?
 
The way we've been doing it in class is the way I posted. We haven't even used k...what does it represent?
 
cowmoo32 said:
\vec E = q1q2\hat{r} / 4\pi\varepsilon r^2

Hi cowmoo32! :smile:

No, that's Coulomb's law for the force

the field is just q2\hat{r} / 4\pi\varepsilon r^2 :smile:

(I think LowlyPion is saying the same thing, and his k is your 1/ 4\pi\varepsilon)
 
cowmoo32 said:
The way we've been doing it in class is the way I posted. We haven't even used k...what does it represent?

k is Coulomb's constant

k = \frac{1}{4 \pi \epsilon_0}

Edit: Tiny-Tim beat me to it.
 
I wrote it as k because Tex is more awkward to pound out.

Sorry if I confused you.
 
Thanks for the help, guys.
 

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