Can dust agglutinate without water?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Jairo
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Dust Water
AI Thread Summary
Dust can agglutinate without the presence of water, contrary to claims that only hydrated minerals can achieve this through Van Der Waals forces. The term "agglutinate" refers to the ability of materials like talc, cement, and flour to stick together, unlike sand. Some participants in the discussion express confusion about the necessity of moisture for agglutination, indicating that it's a common misconception. Specialized resources and further research into Earth Sciences are suggested for a deeper understanding. The conversation highlights the need for clarification on the mechanisms of dust agglutination.
Jairo
Messages
5
Reaction score
0
I saw a guy claiming to have studied geology and telling that "only dust of hydrated minerals could agglutinate, because agglutination is produced only by Van Der Wall forces".
I read many times that dust can agglutinate without water traces, so I see this is wrong, but I would like to read some specialized coment or text about this matter.
Thanks.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I don't even know what 'agglutinate' means. Have you tried Earth Sciences for this?
 
By "agglutinate", I mean "stick together"; a thing that talc, cement and flour can do, but sand can not.
 
Okay, thanks Jairo. I always thought that moisture was required for that, but I've never studied it so that's just an impression that I had.
 
Thread 'Is 'Velocity of Transport' a Recognized Term in English Mechanics Literature?'
Here are two fragments from Banach's monograph in Mechanics I have never seen the term <<velocity of transport>> in English texts. Actually I have never seen this term being named somehow in English. This term has a name in Russian books. I looked through the original Banach's text in Polish and there is a Polish name for this term. It is a little bit surprising that the Polish name differs from the Russian one and also differs from this English translation. My question is: Is there...
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Back
Top