what specific problem are you stuck on? I've just done a module on he Helmholtz equation which i aced. il be happy to help.
xxxx Gareth
#3
acceler8
16
0
By far, the most active area of research linking QM and number theory is the work concerning the 'spectral interpretation' of the Riemann zeta zeros, suggesting a possible approach to the Riemann hypothesis involving quantum chaos.
We address the problem of constructing positive operator-valued measures (POVMs) in finite dimension n consisting of n2 operators of rank one which have an inner product close to uniform. This is motivated by the related question of constructing symmetric informationally complete POVMs (SIC-POVMs) for which the inner products are perfectly uniform. However, SIC-POVMs are notoriously hard to construct and despite some success of constructing them numerically, there is no analytic construction known. We present two constructions of approximate versions of SIC-POVMs, where a small deviation from uniformity of the inner products is allowed. The first construction is based on selecting vectors from a maximal collection of mutually unbiased bases and works whenever the dimension of the system is a prime power. The second construction is based on perturbing the matrix elements of a subset of mutually unbiased bases. Moreover, we construct vector systems in $\C^n$ which are almost orthogonal and which might turn out to be useful for quantum computation. Our constructions are based on results of analytic number theory.
Some useful notes a friend lent me, and that i never gave back...
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure.
After the equation (4.50) it says
"It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)"
I still don't understand the figure :(
Here is...
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself.
Part (a) is quite easy. We get
$$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 =
\begin{pmatrix}
0 \\
0 \\
1
\end{pmatrix}
\sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 =
\begin{pmatrix}
1/\sqrt{2} \\
1/\sqrt{2} \\
0
\end{pmatrix}
\sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 =
\begin{pmatrix}
1/\sqrt{2} \\
-1/\sqrt{2} \\
0
\end{pmatrix}
$$
There are two ways...