Changing integration limits from [0,a] to [0, inf)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the transformation of an integral with finite limits, specifically from [0, a] to [0, ∞), while maintaining equivalence in value. The subject area involves integral calculus and the properties of functions within specified limits.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the possibility of changing the limits of integration through substitution methods, particularly using trigonometric functions. Questions arise regarding the validity of such transformations and the implications for the constant c that would maintain equivalence between the integrals.

Discussion Status

The discussion includes various attempts to understand the transformation of limits and the conditions under which it may or may not be valid. Some participants express skepticism about the feasibility of such a transformation for arbitrary functions, while others provide specific substitution examples and their outcomes.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the behavior of the function f(x) on the interval [0, a] may not relate to its behavior on [a, ∞), raising concerns about the general applicability of the proposed transformations.

PerUlven
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Homework Statement
This isn't really homework, but a question I came upon when doing my homework.

How can I go from an integral with limits 0 and a:

[itex] \int_0^a f(x) dx[/itex]

to something with limits 0 and [itex]\infty[/itex] (still giving the same answer)

[itex] c\int_0^\infty f(u) du[/itex]

, where [itex]c[/itex] is some kind of constant.

The attempt at a solution
I've tried substituting [itex]x[/itex] with [itex]tan(\frac{\pi x}{2a})[/itex], since this seems to give the correct limits, but I don't know if it makes any sense, and what to do next (how to find c for example).
 
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PerUlven said:
Homework Statement
This isn't really homework, but a question I came upon when doing my homework.

How can I go from an integral with limits 0 and a:

[itex] \int_0^a f(x) dx[/itex]

to something with limits 0 and [itex]\infty[/itex] (still giving the same answer)

[itex] c\int_0^\infty f(u) du[/itex]

, where [itex]c[/itex] is some kind of constant.

The attempt at a solution
I've tried substituting [itex]x[/itex] with [itex]tan(\frac{\pi x}{2a})[/itex], since this seems to give the correct limits, but I don't know if it makes any sense, and what to do next (how to find c for example).

You can't, in general. The integral of f(x) for 0 ≤ x ≤ a depends only on the value of f(x) for x between 0 and a, while the integral of f(u) for 0 ≤ u < ∞ depends on the values of f(u) for all positive values of u, including values u > a. The behaviour of f on [0,a] may be essentially unrealated to the behaviour on [a,∞).

Now, of course, if both integrals are finite, you can get c by dividing one by the other, but that is trivial and probably not what you had in mind. You cannot do that at all if the integral over [0,a] is finite while that over [0,∞) is infinite.

RGV
 
I think it is not possible to change limits from some value to infinity for an unkown function... I can be wrong but I never saw any such thing before
 
PerUlven said:
Homework Statement
This isn't really homework, but a question I came upon when doing my homework.

How can I go from an integral with limits 0 and a:

[itex] \int_0^a f(x) dx[/itex]

to something with limits 0 and [itex]\infty[/itex] (still giving the same answer)

[itex] c\int_0^\infty f(u) du[/itex]

, where [itex]c[/itex] is some kind of constant.

The attempt at a solution
I've tried substituting [itex]x[/itex] with [itex]\tan(\frac{\pi x}{2a})[/itex], since this seems to give the correct limits, but I don't know if it makes any sense, and what to do next (how to find c for example).

If you make the substitution, [itex]\displaystyle u=\tan\left(\frac{\pi x}{2a}\right)\,,[/itex] then [itex]\displaystyle x=\frac{2a}{\pi }\tan^{-1}(u)\,,[/itex] so that [itex]\displaystyle dx=\frac{2a}{\pi }\frac{1}{1+u^2}du\ .[/itex]

This gives: [itex]\displaystyle \int_0^a f(x)\,dx<br /> =\frac{2a}{\pi }\int_0^{\infty} f\left(\frac{2a}{\pi }\tan^{-1}(u)\right)\frac{1}{1+u^2}du\,,[/itex] which is probably not what you wanted.
 
Thanks a lot guys. This is what happens when I sit and wonder about mathematics and physics into the night!
 

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