CIRCUIT ANALYSIS: Non-Ideal OpAmp with 2 resistors - Find Thevenin Equivalent

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on finding the Thevenin equivalent circuit for a non-ideal op-amp with two resistors. Participants analyze the circuit using Kirchhoff's Current Law (KCL) and derive equations for voltages and currents at various nodes. There is confusion regarding the correct signs for voltage relationships, particularly whether V_d equals -V_IN or V_IN. The conversation emphasizes the need to correctly apply KCL to both nodes to derive consistent equations for V_0. Ultimately, the resolution hinges on clarifying the relationship between V_d and V_IN to solve for the Thevenin equivalent accurately.
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Homework Statement



There is a non-inverting op-amp below.

http://img291.imageshack.us/img291/8242/chapter5lastproblemea1.jpg

The op-amp is NOT ideal. We assume that R_i\,=\,\infty, R_0\,>\,0 and A is finite.

Find the general Thevenin equivalent circuit seen at the terminals.


Homework Equations



KCL, v = i R


The Attempt at a Solution



I changed the diagram to use a model given for a non-ideal op-amp.

http://img144.imageshack.us/img144/6144/chapter5lastproblempartyx5.jpg

Now I add some voltage and current markers.

http://img166.imageshack.us/img166/5948/chapter5lastproblempartsk9.jpg

V_d\,=\,-V_{IN} <-----Right?

V_1\,=\,-A\,V_{IN}

Now, the current equations)

I_1\,=\,\frac{V_1\,-\,V_0}{R_0}\,=\,\frac{-A\,V_{IN}\,-\,V_0}{R_0}

I_2\,=\,\frac{V_0\,-\,V_2}{R_2}

I_3\,=\,\frac{V_2}{R_1}

KCL at V_0)

I_1\,=\,I_2\,\,\longrightarrow\,\,\frac{-A\,V_{IN}\,-\,V_0}{R_0}\,=\,\frac{V_0\,-\,V_2}{R_2}

Solving for V_0)

V_0\,=\,\frac{-R_2\,A\,V_{IN}\,+\,R_0\,V_2}{R_0\,+\,R_2}

KCL at V_2)

I_2\,=\,I_3\,\,\longrightarrow\,\,\frac{V_0\,-\,V_2}{R_2}\,=\,\frac{V_2}{R_1}

Solving that equation for V_0)

V_0\,=\,\frac{R_2\,V_2\,+\,R_1\,V_2}{R_1}

But which do I use? Are they both right? ONe wrong? Or all wrong?
 
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I think you only did a partial KCL at node 2. Summing currents into the node you should get:

\frac{V_d-V_2}{R_i} + \frac{V_0-V_2}{R_2} + \frac{0-V_2}{R_1} = 0

and for the V0 node:

\frac{AV_d - V_0}{R_0} + \frac{V_2 - V_0}{R_2} = 0

Now you can solve for V_0 and use the V_in=V_d constraint, though you seems to think is otherwise. You might have a reason that I don't see, but I think V_d = V_in, and not the negative.
 
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