Classical mech non-inertial frame bead on a rotating ring

Liquidxlax
Messages
312
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



haEse.png


Consider the bead threaded on a cicular hoop of example 7.6 (pg 260), working in a frame that rotates with the hoop. find the equation of motion of the bead, and check that your result agrees with eq 7. 69. Using a free body diagram explain the result 7.71 for equilibrium positions

Homework Equations



d2θ/dt2 = (ω2cosθ - g/R)sinθ 7.69

θo = ±arccos(g/ω2R) 7.72

The Attempt at a Solution



In the inertial frame there is going to be a centrifugal force coriolus force and force of gravity

Feff = Fg + Fcf + Fcor

by the diagram

Fcf = mRω2sinθ Not sure about the direction

( I'm thinking it wouldn't really be in the r hat direction. more like Rcosθ. sounds redundant but I'm not sure how to explain it.)

Fcor = -2mvΩcosθ because it is in the southern hemisphere so it would deflect left which would oppose the gravitational force

I assume Feff = mR2[d2θ/dt2]



I can solve this problem by lagrange method, but I'm not fully understanding this non-inertial ref frame.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Suprisingly enough i actually did it right

Feff is mR(d2θ/dt2) = mRΩ2sinθ(rho_hat) -mgRsinθ

where rho_hat is cosθ

Deduced this by saying r' = r therefore R has to equal zero, but capital R is not the same as the radius in the equation above
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top