Feldoh
- 1,336
- 3
This really isn't a homework question -- but it does involve my homework. Say you've got a box sliding down an incline of x degrees at a constant speed, I somehow got that that coefficient of kinetic friction is equal to tan(x). Will this always hold true for objects moving at a constant speed on an incline in two dimensions?
Basically I solved for the normal force:
F_{Net}=0
F_N-F_g_y=0
F_N=mgcos(x)
Then for the coefficient of friction:
F_{Net} = 0
F_f-F_g_x = 0
F_f = F_g_x
\mu_kF_n = F_g_x
\mu_k = (F_g_x)/(F_N)
\mu_k = mgsin(x)/mgcos(x)
\mu_k = tan(x)
Where F_{g_x} is the horizontal component of the force of the gravitational field, and F_{g_y} is the vertical component.
I was just wondering, it's sort of situational but it is a shortcut none-the-less if it does actually work.
Basically I solved for the normal force:
F_{Net}=0
F_N-F_g_y=0
F_N=mgcos(x)
Then for the coefficient of friction:
F_{Net} = 0
F_f-F_g_x = 0
F_f = F_g_x
\mu_kF_n = F_g_x
\mu_k = (F_g_x)/(F_N)
\mu_k = mgsin(x)/mgcos(x)
\mu_k = tan(x)
Where F_{g_x} is the horizontal component of the force of the gravitational field, and F_{g_y} is the vertical component.
I was just wondering, it's sort of situational but it is a shortcut none-the-less if it does actually work.
Last edited: