Constant of motion, Maxwell's equations

WannabeNewton
Science Advisor
Gold Member
Messages
5,848
Reaction score
552

Homework Statement


Let F_{ab} be the Faraday Tensor and \xi ^{a} a killing vector field. Suppose that the lie derivative \mathcal{L} _{\xi }F_{ab} = \xi ^{c}\triangledown _{c}F_{ab} + F_{cb}\triangledown _{a}\xi ^{c} + F_{ac}\triangledown _{b}\xi ^{c} = 0. Show that F_{ab}\xi ^{b} = \triangledown _{a}\varphi for some smooth scalar field \varphi and that I = mu^{a}\xi _{a} + q\varphi is a constant of motion for a charged particle of mass m, charge q, and 4 - velocity u.

Homework Equations


Maxwell's equations: \triangledown ^{a}F_{ab} = 0, \triangledown _{[a}F_{bc] } = 0. Equations of motion for charged particle / Lorentz force: mu^{a}\triangledown _{a}u^{b} = qF^{b}_{c}u^{c}.

The Attempt at a Solution


In order to show that F_{ab}\xi ^{b} = \triangledown _{a}\varphi for some smooth scalar field \varphi, we want to show that the one - form field F_{ab}\xi ^{b} is closed i.e. \triangledown _{a}(F_{bc}\xi ^{c}) - \triangledown _{b}(F_{ac}\xi ^{c}) = 0. We find that \triangledown _{a}(F_{bc}\xi ^{c}) - \triangledown _{b}(F_{ac}\xi ^{c}) = (\xi ^{c}\triangledown _{a}F_{bc} - \xi ^{c}\triangledown _{b}F_{ac} - F_{cb}\triangledown _{a}\xi ^{c} - F_{ac}\triangledown _{b}\xi ^{c}). Using the second of Maxwell's equations, \triangledown _{[a}F_{bc] } = 0, we find that \triangledown _{a}(F_{bc}\xi ^{c}) - \triangledown _{b}(F_{ac}\xi ^{c}) = (-\xi ^{c}\triangledown _{c}F_{ab} - F_{cb}\triangledown _{a}\xi ^{c} - F_{ac}\triangledown _{b}\xi ^{c}) = 0 because this is the expression of the lie derivative which we are told vanishes. Thus we can conclude that F_{ab}\xi ^{b} = \triangledown _{a}\varphi for some smooth scalar field \varphi. In order to show that I = mu^{a}\xi _{a} + q\varphi is a constant of motion along the worldline of this charged particle subject to the Lorentz force, we must show \triangledown _{u}I = u^{b}\triangledown _{b}I = 0. We find that u^{b}\triangledown _{b}I = u^{b}\triangledown _{b}(mu^{a}\xi _{a} + q\varphi ) = mu^{b}u^{a}\triangledown _{b}\xi _{a} + mu^{b}\xi _{a}\triangledown _{b}u^{a} + qu^{b}\triangledown _{b}\varphi. Since u^{b}u^{a} is symmetric in the indices and \triangledown _{b}\xi _{a} is anti - symmetric in the indices, on account of \xi being a killing field, their contraction must vanish so we get u^{b}\triangledown _{b}I = mu^{b}\xi _{a}\triangledown _{b}u^{a} + qu^{b}\triangledown _{b}\varphi = mu^{b}\xi _{a}\triangledown _{b}u^{a} + qu^{b}F_{bc}\xi ^{c} = mu^{b}\xi _{c}\triangledown _{b}u^{c} - qu^{b}F_{cb}\xi ^{c} = \xi _{c}(mu^{b}\triangledown _{b}u^{c} - qu^{b}F_{b}^{c}) = 0. Can anyone check if this is the right way to do it because I'm not too sure; it seems fine however I never had to use anywhere the first of Maxwell's equations \triangledown ^{a}F_{ab} = 0 even though we are given it. Maybe it is superfluous information for the purposes of this problem? Thanks again!
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Physics news on Phys.org
It looks ok! Maybe the unused equation was given for sake of completness, letting you decide if it will be used or not.
 
Ok thank you mate!
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top