D Alembert's Principle: Dependence of kinetic energy on generalized coordinates.

puneeth9b
Messages
13
Reaction score
0
Hey!
I was reading Goldestein's book on classical mechanics and I came across this (Page 20 3rd Edition):

"Note that in a system of Cartesian coordinates the partial derivative of T with
respect to qj vanishes. Thus, speaking in the language of differential geometry,
this term arises from the curvature of the coordinates qj. In polar coordinates,
e.g., it is in the partial derivative of T with respect to an angle coordinate that the
centripetal acceleration teml appears."

Here T=Kinetic energy of the system
qj= the jth generalized coordinate.

I don't exactly understand how this works.
1.Why isn't it (dT/dq) zero in polar coordinates if it is zero in cartesian coordinates?
2.What if velocity was a function of coordinates? dT/dq can't possibly be zero even in cartesian coordinates then right?

I might have missed some assumption that makes everything clear, so all those of you who've read the book, please help!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I have the exact same question, no luck yet...
 
I'm not sure why you'd expect ##\partial T/\partial q_i## to be zero in polar coordinates. The kinetic energy in polar coordinates is given by
$$T=\frac{1}{2}m\dot{r}^2+ \frac{1}{2}mr^2\dot{\theta}^2.$$ Clearly, ##\partial T/\partial r = mr\dot{\theta}^2## is not zero in general. Goldstein should have said it was the partial derivative with respect to the radial coordinate that gives rise to the centripetal acceleration term.

Regarding your second question, remember that the coordinates ##q_i## and velocities ##\dot{q_i}## are considered independent variables.
 
  • Like
Likes 1 person
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top