Damped Harmonic Oscillator Approximation?

AI Thread Summary
In discussions about the damped oscillator, it is noted that when the mechanical resistance (β) is much smaller than the natural frequency (ω0), the damped frequency (ωd) can be approximated using a Taylor series expansion. The relationship is derived from the expression ωd = √(ω0² - β²), leading to the approximation ωd ≈ ω0[1 - (1/2)(β/ω0)²]. The use of Taylor series is emphasized as a common method in physics for simplifying complex equations, such as in the case of the swinging pendulum where small angle approximations are applied. Understanding Taylor series is highlighted as essential for solving various physics problems. This foundational concept is crucial for analyzing oscillatory systems.
cj
Messages
85
Reaction score
0
For a simple damped oscillator...

\text {Apparently if } \beta \ll \omega_0 } \text { then ...}

\omega_d \approx \omega_0[1-\frac {1}{2}(\beta/\omega_0)^2]}

Given that:

\beta=R_m/2m \text { (where } R_m= \text {mechanical resistance) } \text { and } \omega _d=\sqrt{(\omega _0^2-\beta ^2)}

How/why is this true? My guess is some kind of
series approximation is used -- but I'm not sure...
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Let's establish the series approximation:
\omega_{d}=\sqrt{\omega_{0}^{2}-\beta^{2}}=\omega_{0}\sqrt{1-(\frac{\beta}{\omega_{0}})^{2}}

Now, let f(\epsilon)=(1+\epsilon)^{m}
When \epsilon\approx0
we have, by Taylor's theorem:
f(\epsilon)\approx{f}(0)+f'(0)\epsilon=1+m\epsilon
Now, recognize:
m=\frac{1}{2},\epsilon=-(\frac{\beta}{\omega_{0}})^{2}
and you've got the formula.
 
Last edited:
Thanks very much. I've got to somehow get
more familiar with Taylor series expansions -- they
seem to be the basis of so many solutions.

cj


arildno said:
Let's establish the series approximation:
\omega_{d}=\sqrt{\omega_{0}^{2}-\beta^{2}}=\omega_{0}\sqrt{1-(\frac{\beta}{\omega_{0}})^{2}}

Now, let f(\epsilon)=(1+\epsilon)^{m}
When \epsilon\approx0
we have, by Taylor's theorem:
f(\epsilon)\approx{f}(0)+f'(0)\epsilon=1+m\epsilon
Now, recognize:
m=\frac{1}{2},\epsilon=-(\frac{\beta}{\omega_{0}})^{2}
and you've got the formula.
 
cj said:
Thanks very much. I've got to somehow get
more familiar with Taylor series expansions -- they
seem to be the basis of so many solutions.

cj
You are absolutely correct in this.
Taylor expansions occur in every branch of physics; for example, they are often used to simplify and approximate difficult non-linear terms occurring in differential equations.
I'm sure you know this one from the swinging pendulum:
We simply assume the angle to be small, and approximate the term:
\sin\theta(t)\approx\theta(t)
This brings, as you know, the pendulum equation into the form of a simple harmonic oscillator.
 
Thread 'Question about pressure of a liquid'
I am looking at pressure in liquids and I am testing my idea. The vertical tube is 100m, the contraption is filled with water. The vertical tube is very thin(maybe 1mm^2 cross section). The area of the base is ~100m^2. Will he top half be launched in the air if suddenly it cracked?- assuming its light enough. I want to test my idea that if I had a thin long ruber tube that I lifted up, then the pressure at "red lines" will be high and that the $force = pressure * area$ would be massive...
I feel it should be solvable we just need to find a perfect pattern, and there will be a general pattern since the forces acting are based on a single function, so..... you can't actually say it is unsolvable right? Cause imaging 3 bodies actually existed somwhere in this universe then nature isn't gonna wait till we predict it! And yea I have checked in many places that tiny changes cause large changes so it becomes chaos........ but still I just can't accept that it is impossible to solve...
Back
Top