Gerenuk
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Is there some mathematician who knows the "core reason" why exp() is connected with cos()?
I mean I'm confident with "advanced maths for physicists", but maybe some abstract theory gives an answer to this.
I was think of something like:
|e^{i\phi}|=1
therefore it's a unit circle.
But also
e^{i\phi_1}e^{i\phi_2}=e^{i(\phi_1+\phi_2)}
therefore the \phi are have the mathematical structure required for angles. So let's define
\cos(\phi):=\Re(e^{i\phi})
I mean I'm confident with "advanced maths for physicists", but maybe some abstract theory gives an answer to this.
I was think of something like:
|e^{i\phi}|=1
therefore it's a unit circle.
But also
e^{i\phi_1}e^{i\phi_2}=e^{i(\phi_1+\phi_2)}
therefore the \phi are have the mathematical structure required for angles. So let's define
\cos(\phi):=\Re(e^{i\phi})