Derivation of FD/BE-distribution using single-particle state

In summary, the explanation for the Fermi-Dirac and Bose-Einstein distributions involves considering a system consisting of a single-particle state, rather than a single particle itself. This allows us to calculate the energy of the system when occupied by multiple particles, and from this we can derive the probability and average number of particles in the state. This approach takes into account the properties of fermions and bosons, resulting in the Fermi-Dirac and Bose-Einstein distributions.
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lampCable
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Homework Statement


I'm trying to understand a derivation of the Fermi-Dirac and Bose-Einstein distributions. In my textbook Thermal Physics by D. V. Schroeder it says: "The idea is to first consider a "system" consisting of one single-particle state, rather than a particle itself. Thus the system will consist of a particular spatial wavefunction (and, for particles with spin, a particular spin orientation). This idea seems strange at first, because we normally work with wavefunctions of definite energy, and each of these wavefunctions shares its space with all the other wavefunctions." Then he says that it does not matter so much. Then: "So let's concentrate on just one single-particle state of a system (say, a particle in a box), whose energy when occupied by a single particle is ##\epsilon##. When the state is unoccupied its energy is 0; if it can be occupied by ##n## particles, then the energy will be ##n\epsilon##."

Now, what I do not understand is why the energy of a state would be dependent on how many particles that can be in it. I mean for bosons there can be any amount of particles in any state, so that would mean that the energy of every state is infinite?

Or does he really mean that if a state is occupied by ##n## particles, then the energy is ##n\epsilon##? But that doesn't make sense to me either because I thought that if a particle is in a particular state then the particle has a particular energy, whereas in the textbook it seems like if a particle is in a particular state, its energy will be different depending on how many particles is in that state.

2. Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution

 
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  • #2
Okay, so I think I have found the answer, and I thought that I'd share it in case anyone else has the same question. Maybe the question was a bit unclear, but what I didn't understand was essentially how we used the "single-particle state" to define the system.

So we're considering a system that consists of a single particle state ##\psi##. The system, assuming that the particles in the system are noninteracting, is described by the wavefunction ##\psi_{system}(x_1,x_2,...,x_n) = \psi(x_1)\times\psi(x_2)\times...\times\psi(x_n)##, i.e. the product of all the ##n## particles in the single particle state. Now, if the energy of the ##\psi## state is ##\epsilon##, the energy of ##\psi_{system}## becomes ##n\epsilon##.

So from this we can derive the probability of the state containing ##n## particles $$P(n) = \frac{1}{Z_G}e^{-n(\epsilon-\mu)/kT},$$ where ##Z_G## is the grand partition function. Using this, we can calculate the average number of particles in the state using $$\bar{n} = \sum_n nP(n).$$ And this is just the occupancy of a particular state with energy ##\epsilon##. So using the properties of fermions and bosons, we can find the Fermi-Dirac and Bose-Einstein distributions.
 
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1. What is the FD/BE-distribution?

The FD/BE-distribution, also known as the Fermi-Dirac/Bose-Einstein distribution, is a statistical distribution that describes the probability of a particle occupying a particular energy state in a system at thermal equilibrium. It is used to model the behavior of particles with integer or half-integer spin, such as fermions and bosons.

2. How is the FD/BE-distribution derived?

The FD/BE-distribution is derived using the principles of statistical mechanics, specifically the concept of microstates and macrostates. By considering a system of particles with discrete energy levels, the distribution is obtained by maximizing the system's entropy subject to certain constraints, such as the total number of particles and the total energy of the system.

3. What is the significance of using single-particle states in the derivation?

The use of single-particle states in the derivation of the FD/BE-distribution allows for a more accurate description of the behavior of individual particles in a system, as opposed to treating the system as a whole. This is particularly important in cases where the particles have strong interactions with each other.

4. What is the difference between the FD-distribution and BE-distribution?

The FD-distribution is used to describe the behavior of fermions, which are particles with half-integer spin, while the BE-distribution is used for bosons, which have integer spin. This is due to the different ways in which fermions and bosons obey the rules of quantum mechanics, resulting in distinct distributions for their respective energy states.

5. Are there any real-world applications of the FD/BE-distribution?

Yes, the FD/BE-distribution has many applications in various fields of physics, including semiconductor devices, superfluids, and neutron stars. It also plays a crucial role in understanding the behavior of matter at extremely low temperatures, such as in Bose-Einstein condensates.

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