Difference in formulas of magnetic force and magnetic flux

AI Thread Summary
The discussion clarifies the difference between the formulas for magnetic force and magnetic flux, highlighting that the magnetic force is calculated using the sine function while magnetic flux uses the cosine function. This distinction arises because the magnetic force equation, F_e = Bqv sin(θ), describes the force on a moving charge, achieving maximum force when the charge moves perpendicular to the magnetic field. Conversely, the magnetic flux equation, φ = BA cos(θ), measures the amount of magnetic field passing through a loop, reaching maximum flux when the loop is oriented parallel to the field. The interplay of these equations is evident when considering a loop spinning in a magnetic field, where the orientation affects both the induced current and the flux. Understanding these relationships is crucial for applications in electromagnetism and circuit design.
Faiq
Messages
347
Reaction score
16
The magnetic force is defined as ## \rm F_e = Bqvsin\theta## and the magentic flux is defined as## \rm \phi = BAcos\theta##
My question is since we are multiplying the two vectors, why is ##sin\theta## used in one equation and ##cos\theta## in second given that ##\theta## is the angle between the two vectors?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Faiq said:
The magnetic force is defined as ## \rm F_e = Bqvsin\theta## and the magentic flux is defined as## \rm \phi = BAcos\theta##
My question is since we are multiplying the two vectors, why is ##sin\theta## used in one equation and ##cos\theta## in second given that ##\theta## is the angle between the two vectors?
Can you say more about where you got those equations? What geometries are they for?
 
Faiq said:
The magnetic force is defined as ## \rm F_e = Bqvsin\theta## and the magentic flux is defined as## \rm \phi = BAcos\theta##
My question is since we are multiplying the two vectors, why is ##sin\theta## used in one equation and ##cos\theta## in second given that ##\theta## is the angle between the two vectors?
One is the force on a moving charge, one is the amount of flux threading a loop - not sure why you expect then to both have the same sin-cos function.
The application where both "formulas" come together is when you have a loop spinning in a magnetic field.
You can work out the expected current in the loop by considering the change in flux through the loop, or the force on each of the charges in the wire of the loop as it moves.
(A square loop with (rather than a circular one) is easier to conceptualise using the moving charges method - but using the flux change method any shape loop will do.)
According to the first formula, the maximum driving force on the charges occurs when they are moving perpendicular to the field - which occurs when the loop is "side-on" to the field and the electrons in the side wires are moving at right angles to the field as the loop rotates.
In that situation, the flux threading the loop is zero.
So the angle used wants a maximum for one "formula" and a minimum for the other. The sin and cos functions achieve that.
(note: when the loop is side-on, the slightest rotation causes a (relatively) large change to the amount of flux that can thread the loop - so the "rate of change of flux" method will be returning maximum current induced in the loop at that time as well.
When the loop is perpendicular to the field (square on), maximum flux threads the loop, but small rotations hardly change that amount, so little or no current is induced by rotation at that point. At that time, the electrons in the side wires are moving parallel to the field, so little to no force on them is created.
Using degrees for ease of input to your calculator, find cos 0 - cos 1 (that's cos zero minus cos one) and compare it to cos 89 - cos 90. That will give you the relative sizes of change in flux for a 1 degree change in rotational position in the side-on, square-on positions.
 
  • Like
Likes Faiq
Thread 'Motional EMF in Faraday disc, co-rotating magnet axial mean flux'
So here is the motional EMF formula. Now I understand the standard Faraday paradox that an axis symmetric field source (like a speaker motor ring magnet) has a magnetic field that is frame invariant under rotation around axis of symmetry. The field is static whether you rotate the magnet or not. So far so good. What puzzles me is this , there is a term average magnetic flux or "azimuthal mean" , this term describes the average magnetic field through the area swept by the rotating Faraday...

Similar threads

Replies
1
Views
612
Replies
7
Views
2K
Replies
35
Views
4K
Replies
4
Views
2K
Replies
30
Views
2K
Replies
14
Views
2K
Replies
16
Views
4K
Replies
3
Views
2K
Back
Top