Dirac and Majorana spinors for neutrinos

bubble
Messages
6
Reaction score
0
Dirac description
If I well understood a Dirac description for fermions is :
##\Psi_{D}=\Psi_{L}+\Psi_{R}## where ##\Psi_{L}## is the left-chiral spinor and ##\Psi_{R}## the right-chiral spinor.
Each spinor, ##\Psi_{L} ## and ##\Psi_{R}## has 2 components cotrresponding to the particle and antiparticle :
Q1 : Can we write ##\Psi_{L}=(\nu_{L},\bar{\nu}_{R}) ##? and ##\Psi_{R}=(\nu_{R},\bar{\nu}_{L})## ?

Majorana description
The Majorana condition is ##\Psi_{L}=\Psi_{L}^{c}## and ##\Psi_{R}=\Psi_{R}^{c}##.
Q2: is it right ?
If yes, ##\Psi_{M}=\Psi_{L}+\Psi_{R}## can be written as ##\Psi_{M}=\Psi_{L}+\Psi_{R}^{c}=\Psi_{L}+(\Psi_{L})^{c}##
with ##\Psi_{L}=(\nu_{L},\bar{\nu}_{R}) ## and ##(\Psi_{L})^{c}=((\nu_{L})^{c},(\bar{\nu}_{R})^{c}) =(\nu_{R}^{c},\bar{\nu}_{L}^{c})=(\nu_{R},\bar{\nu}_{L})##
So the Majorana field describes the 4 states of the neutrino (##\nu_{L},\bar{\nu}_{R},\nu_{R},\bar{\nu}_{L}##)
Q3: In such notation what is the difference between ##\nu_{L}^{c}## and ##\bar{\nu}_{L} ## ? Majorana condition ##\nu_{L}^{c} = \nu_{L}## can be also written as : ##\bar{\nu}_{L} = \nu_{L}## ?

I realize I am lost between antiparticle notation ##\bar{\nu}## and charge conjugate ##\nu^{c}##
Can you help me ?
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
up
 
Your questions cannot be answered without careful explanation of the notation. Are you using a particular text?

I recommend Srednicki's text (draft version available free from his web page) for a detailed explanation of Weyl, Dirac, and Majorana fields.
 
Thank you, this text is very useful.
But I am still not sure to understand the difference between the fields component and the particle.
For example for the Dirac field where ##\Psi_{D}=\Psi_{L}+\Psi_{R}##, the four components of the field ##\Psi_{D}## are ##\nu_{L},\bar{\nu}_{R},\nu_{R},\bar{\nu}_{L}## or is it something completely different ?
Thank you...
 
bubble said:
Dirac description
If I well understood a Dirac description for fermions is :
##\Psi_{D}=\Psi_{L}+\Psi_{R}## where ##\Psi_{L}## is the left-chiral spinor and ##\Psi_{R}## the right-chiral spinor.
Each spinor, ##\Psi_{L} ## and ##\Psi_{R}## has 2 components
No, \Psi_{L} and \Psi_{R} are 4-component spinors just like \Psi_{D}. Why don’t you work it out yourself? In Dirac representation, you have \gamma_{5} = \left( \begin{array}{cc} 0_{2 \times 2} & I_{2 \times 2} \\ I_{2 \times 2} & 0_{2 \times 2} \end{array} \right) . So, if you write \Psi_{D} = \left( \chi , \phi \right)^{T}, with \chi = \left( \psi_{1} , \psi_{2} \right)^{T} and \phi = \left( \psi_{3} , \psi_{4} \right)^{T}, you find \Psi_{L} = \frac{1}{2} \left( \begin{array}{c} \chi - \phi \\ \phi - \chi \end{array} \right) , \ \ \ \Psi_{R} = \frac{1}{2} \left( \begin{array}{c} \chi + \phi \\ \phi + \chi \end{array} \right) .
corresponding to the particle and antiparticle
Wrong again, Dirac equation has 4 independent solutions, each (massive) solution is given by 4-component spinor. Two of these solutions (spin up: u^{(1)} (p) & spin down: u^{(2)} (p)) represent a (massive) fermion and the other two solutions ( v^{( 1 , 2 )} (p) ) describe the corresponding anti-fermion. The same is true for massless fermions except that the Dirac equation splits into two decoupled equations for the 2-component spinors \chi and \phi : E \chi = - ( \sigma \cdot p ) \chi , E \phi = ( \sigma \cdot p ) \phi . Each one of these equations has 2 independent solutions: one (2-spinor) for E = | p | ( \nu_{L}, if you like), and the other 2-spinor solution is for E = - | p | ( i.e., \bar{\nu}_{R} ) . So, when we say that \chi describes \nu_{L} and \bar{\nu}_{R}, this DOSE NOT mean that \nu_{L} is the first component of \chi and \bar{\nu}_{R} is the second component. No, \nu_{L} and \bar{\nu}_{R} are 2 independent solutions of the SAME equation and each (massless particle) is described by 2-component spinor. Indeed, in the Weyl (chiral) representation, you find \Psi_{L} = ( \chi , 0 )^{T} and \Psi_{R} = ( 0 , \phi )^{T}.
Q1 : Can we write ##\Psi_{L}=(\nu_{L},\bar{\nu}_{R}) ##? and ##\Psi_{R}=(\nu_{R},\bar{\nu}_{L})## ?
What does it mean to pair together 2 independent solutions of the same equation? Is \Psi_{D} ( p ) = \left( u ( p ) , v ( p ) \right)? Does the object ( e^{-} , e^{+} ) make any mathematical sense? No, \Psi_{D} = u^{(1)} , u^{(2)} , v^{(1)} , v^{(2)}, these are four independent 4-component spinors solutions of the Dirac equation.

Sam
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. Towards the end of the first lecture for the Qiskit Global Summer School 2025, Foundations of Quantum Mechanics, Olivia Lanes (Global Lead, Content and Education IBM) stated... Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/quantum-entanglement-is-a-kinematic-fact-not-a-dynamical-effect/ by @RUTA
If we release an electron around a positively charged sphere, the initial state of electron is a linear combination of Hydrogen-like states. According to quantum mechanics, evolution of time would not change this initial state because the potential is time independent. However, classically we expect the electron to collide with the sphere. So, it seems that the quantum and classics predict different behaviours!
Back
Top