Does angular acceleration not always come with torque?

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SUMMARY

The discussion clarifies the relationship between torque and angular acceleration, specifically addressing the misconception that torque is always required for angular acceleration. The equation τ = Iα applies when the moment of inertia (I) is constant; however, when I varies, the relationship becomes more complex. The participants highlight that angular acceleration can occur without torque when angular momentum is conserved, as illustrated by the equation dL/dt = d(Iω)/dt. This indicates that changes in angular inertia can lead to angular acceleration without external torque.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of angular momentum and its conservation principles
  • Familiarity with the equations of rotational motion, specifically τ = Iα
  • Knowledge of moment of inertia and its dependence on mass distribution
  • Basic grasp of calculus, particularly derivatives and their physical interpretations
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  • Study the implications of variable moment of inertia in rotational dynamics
  • Explore the concept of angular momentum conservation in non-constant systems
  • Learn about the effects of internal forces on angular motion
  • Investigate real-world applications of torque and angular acceleration in automotive engineering
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Physics students, mechanical engineers, and anyone interested in advanced concepts of rotational dynamics and torque analysis.

carrotstien
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I always thought that

torque = I*d²θ/dt²

so that, if there is any d²θ/dt² on an object with a moment of inertia (both with respect to the same point)..then there must be a torque applied.

However, I've found a case where this isn't true. So, I'm assuming there is more to it then that simple formula.

I found, on wiki
"When the moment of inertia is constant, one can also relate the torque on an object and its angular acceleration in a similar equation:

τ = I α

"

So perhaps, when the moment of inertia isn't constant, then that formula has some stuff appended to it. (what?)

The situation i speak of:
A particle is traveling in a straight line not through the origin at a constant velocity.
It's (r) and (θ) are both functions of time. If you work out the time derivatives, you get a non-zero θ''. However, there are no forces, and no torques on the particle. (like a car just cruising past you).
Also, the origin isn't moving or accelerating, so that there doesn't seem to be some relativity issue (i am not talking about special or general)

Can anyone explain / tell me the full relation between torque and θ''...since
torque = I*θ'' seems to be a simplified case.
 
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In analog with Newton's second law for translation, the full formula would be something like:
\vec{\tau}=\frac{d\vec{L}}{dt}
\vec{L} \equiv I \vec{\omega}}

So only when moment of inertia is constant does it reduce to the more familiar form.
 
An automobile supplies torque to its wheels at constant velocity to compensate for air drag. So when there is energy loss, torque is required to maintain a constant angular velocity.

Angular acceleration can occur without torque:

dL/dt = d(Iω)/dt = I dω/dt + ω dI/dt

If I dω/dt = - ω dI/dt , no torque is required for angular acceleration.
Bob S
 
If the angular inertia is changed via an internal force, then angular acceleration will occur while the angular inertia is changing because angular momentum is conserved. Note that internal work is peformed during such a change, and that angular kinetic energy will also change.
 
Last edited:
yea, thanks, Nabeshin and all...i get it
i just never knew that L was defined in terms of Iw the way you showed it.
Now everything makes sense again.
 
yea, thanks, Nabeshin and all...i get it
i just never knew that L was defined in terms of Iw the way you showed it.
Now everything makes sense again.
 

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