it is a metal ball, so it should be a condtuctor, sorry.
But shouldn't the potential from the ball also contribute? In the absence of the point charge at c, the field in the cavity of the ball sould be zero and the potential should have the value which is the same as for the surface, i.e \frac{Q_1}{4\pi \epsilon _0 a}.
Then we add the charge Q_2 at c, and the field in the cavity is no longer zero, and the potential in origo is the sum:
V(0) = \frac{Q_2}{4\pi \epsilon _0 c} + \frac{Q_1}{4\pi \epsilon _0 a}
?[/QUOT
The fact that the interior charge lies at c makes this an interesting problem. Let's start with the inside charge at the origin, compute the potential inside and then move the charge to point c.
With Q_2 at the center, the potential of the small sphere is caused in part by its own charge and in part because it lies in the field of Q_2 thus its potential
is
V_a = \frac{1}{4 \pi \epsilon_o} ( \frac{Q_1}{a} + \frac{Q_2}{a}) (1)
The potential due to the point charge at the origin is, of course,
V_Q_2 = \frac{1}{4 \pi \epsilon_o} \frac{Q_2}{r} (2)
Now, suppose we displace this charge to point c. The charge on the outer ball will rearrange so that the potential through out is constant to maintain E = 0 and I'm thinking that as long as the ball is insulated its potential is still given by (1). (By all means feel free to poke holes in that statement.) If so, then the potential at the center is given by
V = \frac{1}{4 \pi \epsilon_o}( \frac{Q_1}{a} + \frac{Q_2}{a} + \frac{Q_2}{c} )